Neuroscience Proficiency Test. Test control in neurology Diversity of manifestations throughout life
TEST CONTROL IN NEUROLOGY
Option 9
Attention! For each question, select onlyone correct answer.
1. Polyneuropathies can develop with all of the following diseases: except:
a) diabetes mellitus
b) temporal arteritis
c) chronic alcohol intoxication
d) systemic lupus erythematosus
e) periarteritis nodosa
2. The etiological basis of chromosomal diseases are chromosomal and genomic mutations that occur only:
a) in germ cells
b) in germ cells and in the zygote
c) in somatic cells
d) in mesenchymal cells
3. To defeat facial nerve all of the above symptoms are characteristic, except:
a) dysphagia
b) smoothness of the frontal and nasolabial folds
c) Bell's sign
d) eyelash symptom
e) hyperacusis
4. A 37-year-old alcoholic woke up with a feeling of unease in his right arm. Neurological examination revealed weakness of dorsiflexion of the hand. It probably damaged:
a) median nerve
b) brachioradial nerve
c) musculocutaneous nerve
d) radial nerve
e) ulnar nerve
5. Narcolepsy is characterized by all of the following symptoms:
a) bulimia
b) hypnogogic hallucinations
c) hypnopompic hallucinations
d) sleep attacks
e) cataplexy
6. Damage to the caudate nucleus (hypotonic-hyperkinetic syndrome) is characterized by all of the listed symptoms, except:
a) hypotension
b) athetosis
d) hemiballismus
e) ataxia
7. A congenital disease is:
a) a disease caused by a gene mutation
b) a disease that manifests itself in the first year of a child’s life
c) a disease diagnosed at birth
d) a disease caused by a chromosomal mutation
e) a disease that manifests itself during the first 3 months of a child’s life
8. The polyneuropathic type of sensitivity disorder is characterized by all of the listed symptoms, except:
a) paresthesia
b) pain in the limbs
c) anesthesia in the distal segments of the limbs
d) hemianesthesia
e) symptoms of tension in the nerve trunks
9. All of the following symptoms are characteristic of sensory impairment with a lesion at the level of the thalamus, except:
a) impairment of superficial sensitivity on the opposite side
b) severe pain (hemialgia)
c) dynamic hemiataxia
d) phantom pain
e) violation of deep sensitivity on the opposite side
10. The probability of having a sick child in a family in which the mother has phenylketonuria and the father is homozygous for the normal allele is:
11. All of the listed symptoms are characteristic of bulbar palsy, except:
a) lack of pharyngeal reflex
b) symptoms of oral automatism
c) dysphagia
d) dysarthria
e) dysphonia
12. Damage to the frontal lobe is characterized by :
a) ataxia
b) euphoria, torpid psyche, asociality
c) astereognosis
d) hemianopsia
e) autotopagnosia
13. Select correct definition concepts of the human genome:
a) a set of nuclear DNA
b) chromosome set of the organism
c) a set of translated DNA sections
d) a combination of nuclear and cytoplasmic DNA
e) a set of cytoplasmic DNA
14. When the anterior spinal roots C-5 – C-6 are affected, the following symptoms occur :
34. Subarachnoid hemorrhage is characterized by all of the listed signs, except:
a) headache and dizziness
b) disturbance of consciousness
c) meningeal syndrome
d) blood in the cerebrospinal fluid
e) protein-cell dissociation
35. The diagnosis of meningitis is established based on a combination of all of the listed symptoms, except:
a) general infectious syndrome
b) meningeal syndrome
c) pseudobulbar syndrome
d) syndrome of inflammatory changes in the cerebrospinal fluid
36. Which of the listed therapeutic measures is not used for treatment in acute period discogenic lumbosacral radiculopathy in spinal osteochondrosis?
a) analgesics
b) diadynamic currents
c) non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
d) manual therapy
d) acupuncture
37. The most common characteristic of tuberculous meningitis is :
a) damage to the membranes of the base of the brain
b) damage to the membranes of the convexital surface of the brain
c) damage to the anterior roots
d) damage to the cauda equina
e) damage to the dorsal roots
38. Which of the following allows us to make a diagnosis of encephalitis:
a) damage to the cranial nerves
b) rough meningeal syndrome
c) absence of focal symptoms
d) focal symptoms
e) protein-cell dissociation in the cerebrospinal fluid
39. The effect of a mutant gene in monogenic pathology is manifested:
a) only clinical symptoms
b) replacement of similar sounds (paraphasia)
c) logorrhea
d) misunderstanding of the commands given
e) alienation of the meaning of words
55. Myopathy is characterized by all of the listed symptoms, except:
A) characteristic changes on EMG
b) weakness of the proximal limbs
c) sensory disturbance
d) malnutrition
e) change in gait (“duck” gait)
56. Symptoms of a brain tumor are all of the following, except:
a) general cerebral
b) local
c) distant symptoms
d) increased protein content in the liquor
e) increased content of neutrophils in the cerebrospinal fluid
a) stenosis great vessels on the neck
b) decrease in perfusion pressure
c) decreased activity of the coagulation system
d) thromboembolism
64. On a computed tomogram of a patient with Huntington’s disease, atrophic areas in the brain are most often found in:
a) cerebellum
b) subthalamic nuclei
c) pillow
d) caudate nucleus
e) substantia nigra
65. Choose the most suitable remedy for the treatment of herpetic encephalitis:
a) cyclophosphamide
b) amphotericin B
c) gamma globulin
d) methotrexate
e) acyclovir
d) anticonvulsants
78. Motor aphasia is characterized by all of the following symptoms, except:
a) disturbance of spontaneous speech
b) speech embolus
c) understanding of addressed commands
d) difficulty in recalling an object in memory
79. A concussion is characterized by:
a) subarachnoid hemorrhage
b) retrograde amnesia
c) hemiparesis
d) upward gaze paresis
e) formation of the carotid-cavernous anastomosis
80. In subacute bacterial endocarditis, neurological disorders are caused by all of the above factors, except:
a) formation of blood clots in the internal carotid artery
b) vasculitis of the common carotid artery
c) thrombosis of the sagittal sinus
d) malformation of the galenic vein
81. During an attack of generalized epilepsy, changes in the pupils are characterized by:
a) anisocoria
b) narrowing
c) expansion
d) none of the above
e) deformation
82. Which characteristic symptom can occur with fractures of the base of the skull?
a) liquorrhea
b) dissociated sensitivity disorders
c) paralysis of limbs
d) logorrhea
e) hyperkinesis
83. Peripheral paralysis is characterized by all of the listed symptoms, except:
a) clonus of the hands and feet
b) muscle hypotonia
d) muscle wasting
84. Migraines are characterized by all following symptoms, except:
a) family character
b) one-sidedness
c) throbbing pain
d) frequency of occurrence
e) deterioration with age
85. All of the above reflects the advantages of magnetic resonance imaging over computed tomography, except:
a) improved image of the craniospinal region
b) better recognition of thin cracks of the temporal bones
c) better recognition of foci of demyelination in multiple sclerosis and other demyelinating diseases
d) pronounced contrast between the gray and white matter of the brain, including the structures formed by them
e) elimination of ionizing radiation
86. Positron emission tomography (PET) is used for:
a) identification of tumor type
b) determining the duration of cerebral infarction
c) determining the source of intracranial hemorrhage
d) determining the basis of peripheral nerve damage
e) studies of the substrate absorbed by the brain
87. The nature of visual disturbances in cases of damage to the posterior cerebral artery:
a) homonymous hemianopsia
b) bitemporal hemianopsia
c) binasal hemianopsia
d) concentric narrowing of visual fields
e) scotoma
88. Which of the following antiepileptic drugs is absolutely contraindicated during pregnancy due to its teratogenic effect?
a) lamotrigine
b) diphenin
c) carbamazepine
d) lorazepam
e) phenobarbital
89. Damage to which spinal cord structures is typical for an extramedullary tumor?
a) optic nerves and pyramidal tracts
b) optic nerves and posterior columns
c) pyramidal and spinothalamic tracts
d) posterior and anterior horns of the spinal cord
d) none of the above
90. Blunt trauma to the elbow can cause:
a) drooping hand
b) weakness of the abductor pollicis brevis muscle
c) “clawed paw”
d) supination of the hand
e) limited pronation of the forearm
91. Café au lait spots are areas of hyperpigmentation that occur with:
a) tuberous sclerosis
b) neurofibromatosis
c) multiple sclerosis
d) Sturge-Weber syndrome
e) ataxia – telangiectasia
92. Parkinsonism is characterized by all of the following symptoms, except:
a) muscle hypotonia
b) amimia
c) muscle rigidity (cogwheel symptom)
d) bradykinesia
d) propulsion
93. Indicate the position characterizing the autosomal dominant type of inheritance:
a) the parents of a sick child are phenotypically healthy, but similar diseases occur in the proband’s siblings
b) a son never inherits diseases from his father
c) mostly men are affected
d) the disease is transmitted from parents to children in every generation
e) a sick father does not transmit the disease to his children
94. Risk factors for the development of cerebral infarction are all except:
a) hypothyroidism
b) hypercholesterolemia
c) atrial fibrillation
d) hypertension
d) smoking
95. Synonym for the concept of “cytoplasmic heredity”:
a) X – linked dominant inheritance
b) mitochondrial inheritance
c) chromosomal microdeletions
d) holandric inheritance
e) X – linked recessive inheritance
96. Diagnostic criteria for neurofibromatosis:
a) congenital heart defect and developmental defect radius and its derivatives
b) multiple dark spots on the skin, skin tumors, subcutaneous tumors and along nerve fibers, scoliosis, optic nerve gliomas
c) seborrheic adenoma on the cheeks, depigmented spots, “coffee” spots, seizures, mental retardation
e) ataxia, cardiomyopathy, Friedreich's foot
97. Peripheral paralysis is characterized by all of the listed symptoms, except:
a) spastic tone
b) muscle hypotonia
c) decreased tendon reflexes
d) muscle wasting
e) “bioelectric silence” on EMG
98. Cerebrospinal fluid with purulent meningitis is characterized by all of the above, except:
a) transparent
b) yellowish-green
c) neutrophilic pleocytosis is detected
d) an increase in protein is detected
d) increase in pressure
99. Damage to the occipital lobe is characterized by :
a) visual agnosia
b) paresthesia
c) motor aphasia
d) central paralysis of the arm
d) euphoria
100. Which disease is not subject to mass biochemical screening:
a) cystic fibrosis
b) phenylketonuria
c) congenital hypothyroidism
d) galactosemia
e) “cry of the cat” syndrome
ANSWERS TO TEST QUESTIONS
Option 5
1. b 37. a 73. c
2. b 38. d 74. g
3. a 39. b 75. c
4. g 40. a 76. g
5. a 41. a 77. a
7. c 43. b 79. b
8.g 44.g 80.g
9. g 45. g 81. c
10. b 46. d 82. a
13. g 49. g 85. b
14. at 50. at 86. d
15. d 51. b 87. a
17. a 53. d 89. c
18. in 54. a 90. in
19. c 55. c 91. b
22.g 58.a 94.a
23. g 59. a 95. b
24. a 60. c 96. b
26. g 62. a 98. a
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QUALIFICATION TEST IN NEUROLOGY
Section 1. CLINICAL ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OF THE NERVOUS SYSTEM. TOPICAL DIAGNOSTICS
01.1. When the abducens nerve is damaged, paralysis of the extraocular muscle occurs.
a) the upper line
b) outer straight line
c) bottom line
d) lower oblique
e) upper oblique
01.2. Mydriasis occurs when there is a lesion
a) the upper portion of the magnocellular nucleus of the oculomotor nerve
b) the lower portion of the magnocellular nucleus of the oculomotor nerve
c) parvocellular accessory nucleus of the oculomotor nerve
d) middle unpaired nucleus
e) nuclei of the medial longitudinal fasciculus
01.3. If the upper limit of conduction disorders of pain sensitivity is determined at the level of the T 10 dermatome, the spinal cord lesion is localized at the level of the segment
a) T 6 or T 7
b) T 8 or T 9
c) T 9 or T 10
d) T 10 or T 11
e) T 11 or T 12
01.4. With central paralysis there is
a) muscle atrophy
b) increased tendon reflexes
c) sensitivity disorder of the polyneuritic type
d) disorders of electrical excitability of nerves and muscles
e) fibrillary twitching
01.5. Choreic hyperkinesis occurs when there is a lesion
a) paleostriatum
b) neostriatum
c) medial globus pallidus
d) lateral globus pallidus
d) cerebellum
01.6. Deep sensory fibers for the lower extremities are located in a thin bundle posterior cords in relation to the midline
a) laterally
b) medially
c) ventrally
d) dorsally
e) ventrolateral
01.7. Deep sensory fibers for the trunk and upper limbs located in the wedge-shaped bundle of the posterior cords in relation to the midline
a) laterally
b) medially
c) ventrally
d) dorsally
e) ventromedial
01.8. Fibers of pain and temperature sensitivity (lateral lemniscus) join fibers of deep and tactile sensitivity (medial lemniscus)
a) in the medulla oblongata
b) in the pons of the brain
c) in the cerebral peduncles
d) in the optic thalamus
d) in the cerebellum
01.9. The main mediator of the inhibitory effect is
a) acetylcholine
c) norepinephrine
d) adrenaline
d) dopamine
01.10. All afferent pathways of the striopallidal system end
a) in the lateral nucleus of the globus pallidus
b) in the striatum
c) in the medial nucleus of the globus pallidus
d) in the subthalamic nucleus
d) in the cerebellum
01.11. Instability in the Romberg position when closing the eyes increases significantly if ataxia occurs.
a) cerebellar
b) sensitive
c) vestibular
d) frontal
e) mixed
01.12. Regulation of muscle tone by the cerebellum when the position of the body in space changes is carried out through
a) red nucleus
b) Lewis body
c) substantia nigra
d) striatum
e) blue spot
01.13. Binasal hemianopsia occurs with lesions
c) visual radiance
d) optic tracts
e) black substance
01.14. Compression leads to a concentric narrowing of the visual field
a) optic tract
b) optic chiasm
c) external geniculate body
d) visual radiance
e) black substance
01.15. When the optic tract is damaged, hemianopia occurs
a) binasal
b) homonymous
c) bitemporal
d) lower quadrant
d) upper quadrant
0116. Homonymous hemianopsia is not observed with the lesion
a) optic tract
b) optic chiasm
c) visual radiance
d) internal capsule
d) optic nerve
01.17. The pathway passes through the superior cerebellar peduncles
a) posterior spinocerebellar
b) anterior spinocerebellar
c) fronto-pontine-cerebellar
d) occipitotemporal pons-cerebellar
e) spinocerebellar
01.18. Olfactory hallucinations are observed when affected
a) olfactory tubercle
b) olfactory bulb
c) temporal lobe
d) parietal lobe
e) frontal lobe
01.19. Bitemporal hemianopsia is observed with lesions
a) central parts of the optic chiasm
b) external parts of the optic chiasm
c) visual tracts of the optic chiasm
d) visual radiance on both sides
e) frontal lobe
01.20. True urinary incontinence occurs when there is damage
a) paracentral lobes of the anterior central gyrus
b) cervical spinal cord
c) lumbar enlargement of the spinal cord
d) cauda equina spinal cord
e) pons brain
01.21. With paresis of upward gaze and convergence disorder, the focus is localized
a) in the upper parts of the pons of the brain
b) in the lower parts of the pons of the brain
c) in the dorsal part of the midbrain tegmentum
d) in the cerebral peduncles
d) in the medulla oblongata
01.22. Half the diameter of the spinal cord (Brown-Séquard syndrome) is characterized by central paralysis on the side of the lesion in combination
a) with a violation of all types of sensitivity - on the opposite
b) with impaired pain and temperature sensitivity on the side of the lesion
c) with a violation of deep sensitivity on the side of the lesion and pain and temperature sensitivity on the opposite side
d) with a violation of all types of sensitivity on the side of the lesion
e) with polyneuritic sensitivity disorders
01.23. When the cerebellar vermis is damaged, ataxia occurs
a) dynamic
b) vestibular
c) static
d) sensitive
d) frontal
01.24. With peripheral paresis of the left facial nerve, convergent strabismus due to the left eye, hyperesthesia in the middle Zelder zone on the left, pathological reflexes on the right, the focus is localized
a) in the left cerebellopontine angle
b) in the right hemisphere of the cerebellum
c) in the pons of the brain on the left
d) in the area of the apex of the left pyramid temporal bone
d) in the cerebral peduncle
01.25. A seizure begins from the toes of the left foot if the focus is located
a) in the anterior adversive field on the right
b) in upper section posterior central gyrus on the right
c) in the lower part of the anterior central gyrus on the right
d) in the upper part of the anterior central gyrus on the right
e) in the lower part of the posterior central gyrus on the right
01.26. The combination of pain and herpetic rashes in the external ear canal and auricle, impaired auditory and vestibular function is a sign of node damage
a) vestibular
b) pterygopalatine
c) geniculate
d) Gasserov
e) star-shaped
01.27. Central paresis of the left arm occurs when the lesion is localized
a) in the upper parts of the anterior central gyrus on the left
b) in the lower parts of the anterior central gyrus on the left
c) behind the posterior thigh of the internal capsule
d) in the knee of the internal capsule
e) in the middle section of the anterior central gyrus on the right
01.28. The cervical plexus is formed by the anterior branches of the spinal nerves and cervical segments
01.29. Brachial plexus form the anterior branches of the spinal nerves
01.30. Nerve impulses are generated
a) cell nucleus
b) outer membrane
c) axon
d) neurofilaments
e) dendrites
01.31. Alexia is observed when affected
a) superior frontal gyrus
b) parahippocampal gyrus
c) thalamus
d) angular gyrus
e) pons brain
01.32. On a section of the lower part of the medulla oblongata, nuclei are not distinguished
a) tender and wedge-shaped
b) spinal tract of the trigeminal nerve
c) hypoglossal nerves
d) facial, abducens nerves
01.33. The brainstem pons includes
a) red kernels
b) nuclei of the trochlear nerve
c) nuclei of the oculomotor nerve
d) nuclei of the abducens nerve
e) nuclei of the hypoglossal nerves
01.34. Hemianesthesia, hemiataxia, hemianopsia are characteristic of the lesion
a) globus pallidus
b) caudate nucleus
c) red nucleus
d) thalamus
e) black substance
01.35. Damage to the cauda equina of the spinal cord is accompanied by
a) flaccid paresis of the legs and sensory impairment of the radicular type
b) spastic paresis of the legs and pelvic disorders
c) impaired deep sensitivity of the distal legs and urinary retention
d) spastic paraparesis of the legs without sensory disorders and dysfunction pelvic organs
e) impairment of deep sensitivity of the proximal legs and urinary retention
01.36. True astereognosis is caused by a lesion
a) frontal lobe
b) temporal lobe
c) parietal lobe
d) occipital lobe
d) cerebellum
01.37. Loss of the upper quadrants of the visual fields occurs with lesions
a) external parts of the optic chiasm
b) lingual gyrus
c) deep parts of the parietal lobe
d) primary visual centers in the thalamus
d) optic nerve
01.38. Astereognosis occurs when there is a lesion
a) lingual gyrus of the parietal lobe
b) superior temporal gyrus
c) inferior frontal gyrus
d) superior parietal lobule
d) cerebellum
01.39. Closure of the reflex arc from the biceps brachii tendon occurs at the level of the following segments of the spinal cord
01.40. Association fibers connect
a) symmetrical parts of both hemispheres
b) asymmetrical parts of both hemispheres
c) cortex with the visual thalamus and underlying sections (centrifugal and centripetal paths)
d) different parts of the cortex of the same hemisphere
d) cerebral peduncles
01.41. Patient with visual agnosia
a) sees surrounding objects poorly, but recognizes them
b) sees objects well, but the shape seems distorted
c) does not see objects in the periphery of the visual field
d) sees objects, but does not recognize them
e) sees surrounding objects poorly and does not recognize them
01.42. Patient with motor aphasia
a) understands spoken speech, but cannot speak
b) does not understand spoken speech and cannot speak
c) can speak, but does not understand spoken speech
d) can speak, but the speech is scanned
e) can speak, but does not remember the names of objects
01.43. Patient with sensory aphasia
a) cannot speak and does not understand spoken speech
b) understands spoken speech, but cannot speak
c) can speak, but forgets the names of objects
d) does not understand spoken speech, but controls his own speech
d) does not understand spoken speech and does not control his own
01.44. Amnestic aphasia is observed with lesions
a) frontal lobe
b) parietal lobe
c) the junction of the frontal and parietal lobes
d) the junction of the temporal and parietal lobes
e) occipital lobe
01.45. The combination of impaired swallowing and phonation, dysarthria, paresis of the soft palate, absence of the pharyngeal reflex and tetraparesis indicates a lesion
a) cerebral peduncle
b) pons brain
c) medulla oblongata
d) midbrain tegmentum
d) hypothalamus
01.46. The combination of paresis of the left half of the soft palate, deviation of the uvula to the right, increased tendon reflexes and pathological reflexes on the right extremities indicates a lesion
a) medulla oblongata at the level of the motor nucleus of the IX and X nerves on the left
b) medulla oblongata at the level of the XII nerve on the left
c) knee of the internal capsule on the left
d) posterior thigh of the internal capsule on the left
d) hypothalamus
01.47. In alternating Millard-Gubler syndrome, the focus is located
a) at the base of the cerebral peduncle
b) in the posterolateral part of the medulla oblongata
c) in the area of the red nucleus
d) at the base of the lower part of the pons
d) in the hypothalamus
01.48. Features of the violation of the pilomotor reflex have topical and diagnostic significance in case of damage
a) quadrigeminal
b) medulla oblongata
c) hypothalamus
d) spinal cord
e) peripheral nerves
01.49. Lesions in the ventral half of the lumbar enlargement are not characterized by the presence
a) inferior flaccid paraparesis
b) disorders of pain sensitivity
c) dysfunction of the pelvic organs of the central type
d) sensitive ataxia lower limbs
e) preserved deep sensitivity
01.50. Oral automatism reflexes indicate damage to the tracts
a) corticospinal
b) corticonuclear
c) fronto-pontine-cerebellar
d) rubrospinal
e) spinocerebellar
01.51. The grasping reflex (Yaniszewski) is noted when affected
a) parietal lobe
b) temporal lobe
c) frontal lobe
d) occipital lobe
d) hypothalamus
01.52. Auditory agnosia occurs with damage
a) parietal lobe
b) frontal lobe
c) occipital lobe
d) temporal lobe
d) hypothalamus
01.53. Alternating Foville syndrome is characterized by simultaneous involvement of nerves in the pathological process
a) facial and abducens
b) facial and oculomotor
c) glossopharyngeal nerve and vagus
d) sublingual and accessory
e) additional and block
01.54. For the syndrome jugular foramen characteristic nerve damage
a) glossopharyngeal, vagus, accessory
b) vagus, accessory, sublingual
c) accessory, glossopharyngeal, sublingual
d) vagus, facial, trigeminal
e) vagus, oculomotor, abducens
01.55. Constructive apraxia occurs when there is a lesion
a) frontal lobe of the dominant hemisphere
b) frontal lobe of the non-dominant hemisphere
e) occipital lobes
01.56. Body schema disorder is noted when affected
a) temporal lobe of the dominant hemisphere
b) temporal lobe of the non-dominant hemisphere
c) parietal lobe of the dominant hemisphere
d) parietal lobe of the non-dominant hemisphere
d) hypothalamus
01.57. Sensory aphasia occurs when there is a lesion
a) superior temporal gyrus
b) middle temporal gyrus
c) superior parietal lobule
d) inferior parietal lobule
d) hypothalamus
01.58. Motor apraxia in the left hand develops with the lesion
a) genu corpus callosum
b) trunk of the corpus callosum
c) thickening of the corpus callosum
d) frontal lobe
e) occipital lobe
01.59. The segmental apparatus of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is represented by neurons of the lateral horns of the spinal cord at the level of segments
a) C 5 -T 10
b) T 1 - T 12
01.60. The caudal section of the segmental apparatus of the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is represented by neurons of the lateral horns of the spinal cord at the level of segments
a) L 4 -L 5 -S 1
b) L 5 -S 1 -S 2
01.61. The ciliospinal center is located in the lateral horns of the spinal cord at the level of the segments
QUALIFICATION TEST IN NEUROLOGY
Section 1. CLINICAL ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OF THE NERVOUS SYSTEM. TOPICAL DIAGNOSTICS
01.1. When the abducens nerve is damaged, paralysis of the extraocular muscle occurs.
a) the upper line
b) outer straight line
c) bottom line
d) lower oblique
e) upper oblique
01.2. Mydriasis occurs when there is a lesion
a) the upper portion of the magnocellular nucleus of the oculomotor nerve
b) the lower portion of the magnocellular nucleus of the oculomotor nerve
c) parvocellular accessory nucleus of the oculomotor nerve
d) middle unpaired nucleus
e) nuclei of the medial longitudinal fasciculus
01.3. If the upper limit of conduction disorders of pain sensitivity is determined at the level of the T 10 dermatome, the spinal cord lesion is localized at the level of the segment
a) T 6 or T 7
b) T 8 or T 9
c) T 9 or T 10
d) T 10 or T 11
e) T 11 or T 12
01.4. With central paralysis there is
a) muscle atrophy
b) increased tendon reflexes
c) sensitivity disorder of the polyneuritic type
d) disorders of electrical excitability of nerves and muscles
e) fibrillary twitching
01.5. Choreic hyperkinesis occurs when there is a lesion
a) paleostriatum
b) neostriatum
c) medial globus pallidus
d) lateral globus pallidus
d) cerebellum
01.6. Deep sensory fibers for the lower extremities are located in a thin bundle of posterior funiculi in relation to the midline
a) laterally
b) medially
c) ventrally
d) dorsally
e) ventrolateral
01.7. Deep sensory fibers for the trunk and upper extremities are located in the wedge-shaped bundle of the posterior funiculi in relation to the midline
a) laterally
b) medially
c) ventrally
d) dorsally
e) ventromedial
01.8. Fibers of pain and temperature sensitivity (lateral lemniscus) join fibers of deep and tactile sensitivity (medial lemniscus)
a) in the medulla oblongata
b) in the pons of the brain
c) in the cerebral peduncles
d) in the optic thalamus
d) in the cerebellum
01.9. The main mediator of the inhibitory effect is
a) acetylcholine
c) norepinephrine
d) adrenaline
d) dopamine
01.10. All afferent pathways of the striopallidal system end
b) in the striatum
c) in the medial nucleus of the globus pallidus
d) in the subthalamic nucleus
d) in the cerebellum
01.11. Instability in the Romberg position when closing the eyes increases significantly if ataxia occurs.
a) cerebellar
b) sensitive
c) vestibular
d) frontal
e) mixed
01.12. Regulation of muscle tone by the cerebellum when the position of the body in space changes is carried out through
a) red nucleus
b) Lewis body
c) substantia nigra
d) striatum
e) blue spot
01.13. Binasal hemianopsia occurs with lesions
c) visual radiance
d) optic tracts
e) black substance
01.14. Compression leads to a concentric narrowing of the visual field
a) optic tract
b) optic chiasm
c) external geniculate body
d) visual radiance
e) black substance
01.15. When the optic tract is damaged, hemianopia occurs
a) binasal
b) homonymous
c) bitemporal
d) lower quadrant
d) upper quadrant
0116. Homonymous hemianopsia is not observed with the lesion
a) optic tract
b) optic chiasm
c) visual radiance
d) internal capsule
d) optic nerve
01.17. The pathway passes through the superior cerebellar peduncles
a) posterior spinocerebellar
b) anterior spinocerebellar
c) fronto-pontine-cerebellar
d) occipitotemporal pons-cerebellar
e) spinocerebellar
01.18. Olfactory hallucinations are observed when affected
a) olfactory tubercle
b) olfactory bulb
c) temporal lobe
d) parietal lobe
e) frontal lobe
01.19. Bitemporal hemianopsia is observed with lesions
a) central parts of the optic chiasm
b) external parts of the optic chiasm
c) visual tracts of the optic chiasm
e) frontal lobe
01.20. True urinary incontinence occurs when there is damage
a) paracentral lobules of the anterior central gyrus
b) cervical spinal cord
c) lumbar enlargement of the spinal cord
d) cauda equina spinal cord
e) pons brain
01.21. With paresis of upward gaze and convergence disorder, the focus is localized
a) in the upper parts of the pons of the brain
b) in the lower parts of the pons of the brain
c) in the dorsal part of the midbrain tegmentum
d) in the cerebral peduncles
d) in the medulla oblongata
01.22. Half the diameter of the spinal cord (Brown-Séquard syndrome) is characterized by central paralysis on the side of the lesion in combination
c) in the pons of the brain on the left
d) in the area of the apex of the pyramid of the left temporal bone
d) in the cerebral peduncle
01.25. A seizure begins from the toes of the left foot if the focus is located
a) in the anterior adversive field on the right
b) in the upper part of the posterior central gyrus on the right
e) in the middle section of the anterior central gyrus on the right
01.28. The cervical plexus is formed by the anterior branches of the spinal nerves and cervical segments
01.29. The brachial plexus forms the anterior branches of the spinal nerves
01.30. Nerve impulses are generated
a) cell nucleus
b) outer membrane
c) axon
d) neurofilaments
e) dendrites
01.31. Alexia is observed when affected
a) superior frontal gyrus
b) parahippocampal gyrus
c) thalamus
d) angular gyrus
e) pons brain
01.32. On a section of the lower part of the medulla oblongata, nuclei are not distinguished
a) tender and wedge-shaped
b) spinal tract of the trigeminal nerve
c) hypoglossal nerves
d) facial, abducens nerves
01.33. The brainstem pons includes
a) red kernels
b) nuclei of the trochlear nerve
c) nuclei of the oculomotor nerve
d) nuclei of the abducens nerve
e) nuclei of the hypoglossal nerves
01.34. Hemianesthesia, hemiataxia, hemianopsia are characteristic of the lesion
a) globus pallidus
b) caudate nucleus
c) red nucleus
d) thalamus
e) black substance
01.35. Damage to the cauda equina of the spinal cord is accompanied by
a) flaccid paresis of the legs and sensory impairment of the radicular type
b) spastic paresis of the legs and pelvic disorders
c) impaired deep sensitivity of the distal legs and urinary retention
d) spastic paraparesis of the legs without sensory disorders and dysfunction of the pelvic organs
e) impairment of deep sensitivity of the proximal legs and urinary retention
01.36. True astereognosis is caused by a lesion
a) frontal lobe
b) temporal lobe
c) parietal lobe
d) occipital lobe
d) cerebellum
01.37. Loss of the upper quadrants of the visual fields occurs with lesions
a) external parts of the optic chiasm
b) lingual gyrus
c) deep parts of the parietal lobe
d) primary visual centers in the thalamus
d) optic nerve
01.38. Astereognosis occurs when there is a lesion
a) lingual gyrus of the parietal lobe
b) superior temporal gyrus
c) inferior frontal gyrus
d) superior parietal lobule
d) cerebellum
01.39. Closure of the reflex arc from the biceps brachii tendon occurs at the level of the following segments of the spinal cord
01.40. Association fibers connect
a) symmetrical parts of both hemispheres
b) asymmetrical parts of both hemispheres
c) cortex with the visual thalamus and underlying sections (centrifugal and centripetal paths)
d) different parts of the cortex of the same hemisphere
d) cerebral peduncles
01.41. Patient with visual agnosia
a) sees surrounding objects poorly, but recognizes them
b) sees objects well, but the shape seems distorted
c) does not see objects in the periphery of the visual field
d) sees objects, but does not recognize them
e) sees surrounding objects poorly and does not recognize them
01.42. Patient with motor aphasia
a) understands spoken speech, but cannot speak
b) does not understand spoken speech and cannot speak
c) can speak, but does not understand spoken speech
d) can speak, but the speech is scanned
e) can speak, but does not remember the names of objects
a) cannot speak and does not understand spoken speech
b) understands spoken speech, but cannot speak
c) can speak, but forgets the names of objects
d) does not understand spoken speech, but controls his own speech
d) does not understand spoken speech and does not control his own
01.44. Amnestic aphasia is observed with lesions
a) frontal lobe
b) parietal lobe
c) the junction of the frontal and parietal lobes
d) the junction of the temporal and parietal lobes
e) occipital lobe
01.45. The combination of impaired swallowing and phonation, dysarthria, paresis of the soft palate, absence of the pharyngeal reflex and tetraparesis indicates a lesion
a) cerebral peduncle
b) pons brain
c) medulla oblongata
d) midbrain tegmentum
d) hypothalamus
01.46. The combination of paresis of the left half of the soft palate, deviation of the uvula to the right, increased tendon reflexes and pathological reflexes on the right extremities indicates a lesion
a) medulla oblongata at the level of the motor nucleus of the IX and X nerves on the left
b) medulla oblongata at the level of the XII nerve on the left
c) knee of the internal capsule on the left
d) posterior thigh of the internal capsule on the left
d) hypothalamus
01.47. In alternating Millard-Gubler syndrome, the focus is located
a) at the base of the cerebral peduncle
b) in the posterolateral part of the medulla oblongata
c) in the area of the red nucleus
d) at the base of the lower part of the pons
d) in the hypothalamus
01.48. Features of the violation of the pilomotor reflex have topical and diagnostic significance in case of damage
a) quadrigeminal
b) medulla oblongata
c) hypothalamus
d) spinal cord
e) peripheral nerves
01.49. Lesions in the ventral half of the lumbar enlargement are not characterized by the presence
a) inferior flaccid paraparesis
b) disorders of pain sensitivity
d) sensitive ataxia of the lower extremities
e) preserved deep sensitivity
01.50. Oral automatism reflexes indicate damage to the tracts
a) corticospinal
b) corticonuclear
c) fronto-pontine-cerebellar
d) rubrospinal
e) spinocerebellar
01.51. The grasping reflex (Yaniszewski) is noted when affected
a) parietal lobe
b) temporal lobe
c) frontal lobe
d) occipital lobe
d) hypothalamus
01.52. Auditory agnosia occurs with damage
a) parietal lobe
b) frontal lobe
c) occipital lobe
d) temporal lobe
d) hypothalamus
01.53. Alternating Foville syndrome is characterized by simultaneous involvement of nerves in the pathological process
a) facial and abducens
b) facial and oculomotor
c) glossopharyngeal nerve and vagus
d) sublingual and accessory
e) additional and block
01.54. Jugular foramen syndrome is characterized by nerve damage
a) glossopharyngeal, vagus, accessory
b) vagus, accessory, sublingual
c) accessory, glossopharyngeal, sublingual
d) vagus, facial, trigeminal
e) vagus, oculomotor, abducens
01.55. Constructive apraxia occurs when there is a lesion
a) frontal lobe of the dominant hemisphere
b) frontal lobe of the non-dominant hemisphere
e) occipital lobes
01.56. Body schema disorder is noted when affected
a) temporal lobe of the dominant hemisphere
b) temporal lobe of the non-dominant hemisphere
c) parietal lobe of the dominant hemisphere
d) parietal lobe of the non-dominant hemisphere
d) hypothalamus
01.57. Sensory aphasia occurs when there is a lesion
a) superior temporal gyrus
b) middle temporal gyrus
c) superior parietal lobule
d) inferior parietal lobule
d) hypothalamus
01.58. Motor apraxia in the left hand develops with the lesion
a) genu corpus callosum
b) trunk of the corpus callosum
c) thickening of the corpus callosum
d) frontal lobe
e) occipital lobe
01.59. The segmental apparatus of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is represented by neurons of the lateral horns of the spinal cord at the level of segments
01.60. The caudal section of the segmental apparatus of the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is represented by neurons of the lateral horns of the spinal cord at the level of segments
a) L 4 -L 5 -S 1
b) L 5 -S 1 -S 2
01.61. The ciliospinal center is located in the lateral horns of the spinal cord at the level of the segments
Section 2. MEDICAL GENETICS
02.1. Proband is:
A. A patient who consults a doctor
B. A healthy person who applied for medical genetic consultation
B. A person who first came under the supervision of a geneticist
D. The person from whom the pedigree collection begins
02.02. With what type of inheritance are patients born significantly more often in families with consanguineous marriages:
A. X-linked recessive
B. Autosomal recessive
B. X-linked dominant
02.03. Siblings are:
A. All relatives of the proband
B. Proband's uncle
B. Parents of the proband
D. Brothers and sisters of the proband
02.04. The objects of study of clinical genetics are:
A. Sick person
B. The patient and sick relatives
B. The patient and all members of his family, including healthy ones
02.05. What is the probability of giving birth to a sick child by a woman who has a sick son and brother with hemophilia:
V. 100%
D. Close to 0%
02.06. Dolichocephaly is:
A. Long narrow skull with prominent forehead and nape
B. Increase in the longitudinal size of the skull relative to the transverse
B. An increase in the transverse size of the skull with a relative decrease in the longitudinal size
D. Expansion of the skull in the occipital region and narrowing in the frontal region
02.07. Epicanthus is:
A. Fused eyebrows
B. Wide-set eyes
B. Vertical skin fold at the inner corner of the eye
D. Narrowing of the palpebral fissure
02.08. Oligodactyly is:
A. Absence of fingers
B. Finger fusion
B. Missing one or more fingers
D. Increasing the number of fingers
02.09. Cryptorchidism is:
A. Non-closure of the urethra
B. Undescended testicles into the scrotum
B. Underdevelopment of the genital organs
02.10. Arachnodactyly is:
A. Shortening of fingers
B. Changing finger shapes
B. Increase in finger length
02.11. Syndactyly is:
A. Fusion of the limbs along the entire length
B. Fusion of the limb in the lower third
B. Finger fusion
02.12 Brachycephaly is:
A. Expansion of the skull in the occipital part and narrowing in the frontal part
B. “tower skull”
B. An increase in the transverse size of the head with a relative decrease in the longitudinal size
D. Increase in the longitudinal size of the skull relative to the transverse
02.13. Anophthalmia is:
A. Congenital absence of eyeballs
B. Congenital absence of the iris
B. Reduced distance between the inner corners of the eye sockets
02.14 Micrognathia is:
A. Small size of the lower jaw
B. Small size of the upper jaw
B. Small oral opening
02.15 Heterochromia of the iris is:
A. Abnormal color perception
B. Different colors of the iris
B. Differences in iris size
02.16 The most appropriate periods of pregnancy to study the level of alpha-fetoprotein in the blood:
A. 7-10 weeks
B. 16-20 weeks
B. 25-30 weeks
G. 33-38 weeks
02.17 Karyotype characteristic of Klinefelter syndrome:
47, ХХУ
47, XUU
46, XY
45, U
47, XXX
45, XO
47, ХХУ
46, XX / 47, XX + 13
46, XX, del(р5)
47, XX + 18
Down's disease
Edwards syndrome
Patau syndrome
Cystic fibrosis
Congenital malformations
45, X
47, XY + 21
45, 0U
47, ХХУ
Only for men
Only for women
In men and women
Prenatal diagnosis
Screening programs
Artificial insemination
is:
Cytochrome C
Prozerin
D-penicillamine
Nootropil
Hepatoprotectors
Hypotyrosinemia
Hypophenylalaninemia
Hypoceruloplasminemia
Hyper-3,4-dihydrophenylalaninemia
Reduced blood ceruloplasmin
Increased copper content in the liver
Decreased urinary copper excretion
Increase in "direct" blood copper
enzyme:
Galactokinases
Dehydropteridine reductase
Dystrophin
Ceruloplasmin
Transcription
Processing
Polyploidy
Broadcast
Replication
Phenotype
Genotype
Karyotype
Recombinant
Neurons
Hepatocytes
Zygotes
Gametes
Epithelial
Clinical and genealogical
Direct DNA probing
Microbiological
Cytological
Twin
Self-reproduction
Methylation
Nucleosome formation
Double-stranded structure
Apoptosis
Necrosis
Degeneration
Chromatolysis
Mutation
Chromosism
Polyploidy
Genetic load
Mosaicism
Disturbance in gene structure
Change in the number of chromosomes
Accumulation of intronic repeats
Change in chromosome structure
Genomic mutation
Gene mutation
Chromosomal mutation
Chromosomal mutations
Genomic mutations
Gene mutations
12,5%
As in the population
100%
Mendel
Beadle-Tatuma
Hardy-Weinberg
Morgana
Wright
02.40. The main objectives of medical genetics are to study
laws of heredity and variability of the human body
population statistics of hereditary diseases
molecular and biochemical aspects of heredity
changes in heredity caused by environmental factors
all of the above
detected in a heterozygous state
detected in a homozygous state
detected in hetero- and homozygous states
all of the above are false
by the action of a dominant gene
by the action of a recessive gene
by the action of both dominant and recessive genes
interaction of genotype with environmental factors
02.43. A karyotype is a set of features of the chromosome set of a cell, determined by:
number of sex chromosomes
chromosome shape
chromosome structure
all of the above
none of the above
predominantly affects males
prevalence of sick family members in the generation
manifestation of a pathological inherited trait in all generations without skipping
all of the above are true
the ratio of healthy and sick family members is 1:1
the disease is not related to consanguinity
the parents of the first identified patient are clinically healthy
all of the above is incorrect
the ratio of sick men in each generation is 2:1
only men get sick
only women get sick
signs of the disease are always found in the mother of the proband
mental development disorders
physical development disorders
multiple malformations
all listed
maternal somatic diseases
emotional stress
physical overload
viruses
all of the above factors
cerebrospinal pyramidal tracts
motor neurons of the anterior horns of the spinal cord
peripheral motor neuron
all of the above
none of the above
according to the autosomal dominant type
by autosomal recessive type
by recessive type associated with sex (X chromosome)
by dominant type associated with gender
with amyotrophy Charcot - Marie - Tuta
for hypertrophic neuropathy Dejerine - Sotta
for Erb's muscular dystrophy
for Becker-Kinner muscular dystrophy
for Kugelberg-Welander amyotrophy
anterior horns of the spinal cord
peripheral motor nerves
muscles of the distal limbs
subcortical nuclei
increased ceruloplasmin levels and hypercupremia
decreased ceruloplasmin levels and hypercupremia
increased ceruloplasmin levels and hypocupremia
decreased ceruloplasmin levels and hypocupremia
plastic extrapyramidal rigidity
akinesia
hypomimia
dementia
02.55. In Friedreich's disease there is
recessive inheritance pattern
dominant mode of inheritance
sex-linked (via the X chromosome)
all of the above
foot deformities
dysraphic status
damage to the heart muscle
decreased or lost reflexes
all of the above
along the peripheral nerves
in the spinal canal along the roots
intracranial along the cranial nerves
in any of the specified areas
autosomal dominant
autosomal recessive
recessive, sex-linked (via the X chromosome)
all of the above is incorrect
rounded skull, gothic palate, syndactyly, muscle hypotonia
dolichocephaly, cleft palate, arachnodactyly, muscle hypertonicity
Craniostenotic skull, cleft lip, presence of 6th digit, choreoathetosis
a combination of any of the above symptoms is observed
fusion of cervical vertebrae
fusion of the 1st cervical vertebra with occipital bone
downward displacement of the cerebellar tonsils
cleft arch of the 1st cervical vertebra
all of the above
only clinical symptoms
at the clinical, biochemical and cellular levels
only at certain stages of metabolism
only at the cellular level
characteristic clinical picture and biochemical analysis
clinical picture
clinical picture, hormonal profile studies, biochemical analysis and pathological examination
transfer of a section of one chromosome to another
change in DNA structure
interaction of genetic and environmental factors
deletion, duplication, translocation of chromosome sections
50%;
close to 0%;
75%;
25%.
patient complaints and family history data
characteristic combination of clinical signs
biochemical analysis
clinical symptoms, biochemical and pathomorphological studies
age of onset of disease
predominant damage to certain groups in the population
type of inheritance
nature of the mutation
biochemical analysis of urine and blood
examination data by an ophthalmologist, cardiologist and paraclinical research methods
clinical symptoms, studies of the concentration of Na and Cl ions in sweat fluid
characteristic clinical symptoms, electromyography data and determination of serum creatinine phosphokinase levels
50%;
25%;
100%.
50%;
25%;
100%.
02.70. Genetic diseases are caused by:
loss of part of the chromosomal material
increase in chromosomal material
loss of two or more genes
single gene mutation
data for determining the concentration of Na and Cl ions in sweat fluid
characteristic neurological symptoms, time of onset and nature of the course, determination of the level of creatinine phosphokinase in the blood serum
examination by an ophthalmologist, neurologist, ultrasound data
histological examination results
50%;
25%;
75%.
primary gene effect
effect of environmental factors
presence of modifier genes
gene dosage effect
all of the above
lack of Mendelization
Children get sick more often
possibility of highlighting separate forms with master gene effect
predominant defeat of men
independence from degree of consanguinity
high frequency in the population
greater risk of developing the disease in relatives with a lower incidence of the disease in the population
phenylketonuria
Kleinfelter's syndrome
hypertonic disease
Arnold-Chiari malformation
spinal amyotrophy of Werdnig-Hoffmann
cleft lip, palate
Friedreich's foot
Marfan syndrome
trisomy 17
trisomy 18
deletion of chromosome 18
inversion of chromosome 17
trisomy 14
trisomy 13
deletion of chromosome 18
duplication of chromosome 18
primary amenorrhea
monosomy X
identifying symptoms from birth
short stature
all of the above
presence of phenylketonuria in one of the parents
carriage of a balanced chromosomal rearrangement in one of the parents
high levels of alpha-fetoprotein in the mother's blood
one of the parents has diabetes
primary amenorrhea
microorchidism
dolichocephaly, arachnodactyly
all of the above
violation of sexual differentiation
presence of enzymopathies
multiple congenital anomalies internal organs
no changes in karyotype
monosomy
egg
squamous epithelium
endothelium
neuron
myocyte
Down syndrome
"cry the cat" syndrome
Klinefelter syndrome
Marfan syndrome
chromosome size
location of the primary constriction
streaking in differential staining
all of the above
establishing the hereditary nature of the disease
establishing the type of inheritance
determining the circle of people who need a detailed examination
all of the above
none of the above
buccal test
biochemical
microbiological
population
immunofluorescence
genetic engineering
antibiotic therapy
limiting the introduction of a harmful product
replacement therapy
broadcast
inversion
mimicry
repolarization
extrapolation
hemophilia
Shereshevsky-Turner syndrome
Duchenne myopathy
neurofibromatosis
schizophrenia
aneuploidy
polysomy
polyploidy
inversion
telomere
centromere
satellite
chromosome arm
morganic
incest
inbreeding
polygamy
from 2 to 6 months
from 2 months to 1 year
from 2 months to 3 years
from 2 months to 5-6 years
all life
Mongoloid eye shape
mental retardation
speech disorders
congenital heart defects
pyramidal insufficiency
in boys
in persons of both sexes
only for adults
arachnodactyly
heart defects
subluxations of the lens
mental retardation
all the listed symptoms
absent
insignificant
significant
depends on the age of the parents
depends on the gender of the patient
02.100. The scapulohumeral-facial form of myopathy (Landouzi - Dezherina) has
autosomal dominant mode of inheritance
autosomal recessive mode of inheritance
autosomal recessive, X-linked type of inheritance
autosomal recessive and autosomal dominant mode of inheritance
type of inheritance unknown
TESTS IN PRIVATE NEUROLOGY.
TOPIC 1. VASCULAR DISEASES OF THE BRAIN.
1. The vertebrobasilar and carotid systems of cerebral blood flow are anastomosed through the artery:
1. front connecting
2. rear connecting
3. ophthalmic
4. meninges
2. Anterior communicating artery - anastomosis between arteries:
1. carotid and basilar
2. two forebrain
3. two vertebral
4. middle and anterior brain
3. The circle of Willis can provide adequate cerebral blood flow during arterial thrombosis
1. midbrain
2. posterior medulla
3. internal sleep
4. external carotid
4. Pressure in large vessels of the arterial circle of the cerebrum:
1. higher in the carotid system
2. higher in the vertebrobasilar system
3. same
5. Blood in large cerebral vessels in physiological conditions:
1. mixed in the basilar system
2. mixed in the carotid system
3.does not mix
6. The constancy of cerebral blood flow is ensured by:
1. autoregulation system cerebral circulation
2. autonomic nervous system
3. brain stem
7. Cerebral blood flow in a healthy person does not depend on general hemodynamics when blood pressure fluctuates between:
1. 100 - 200 mmHg.
2. 60 - 200 mmHg.
3. 60 - 250 mmHg.
8. When blood pressure rises, cerebral vessels:
1. taper
2. do not change the diameter of the lumen
3. expand
9. When the oxygen content in arterial blood decreases, cerebral vessels:
1. taper
2. expand
3. do not change the diameter of the lumen
10. When the content decreases carbon dioxide in the blood cerebral vessels:
1. taper
2. do not change the diameter of the lumen
3. expand
11. Onset of hemorrhagic stroke as a hematoma:
1. sudden
2. increase in symptoms over the course of hours
3. flickering symptoms
12. Hemorrhage in the brain develops, as a rule:
1. at night while sleeping
2. in the morning after sleep
3. during the day during periods of vigorous activity
13. Headache due to cerebral hemorrhage:
1. not typical
2. sudden acute
3. moderate
14. Meningeal symptoms with cerebral hemorrhage occur:
1. almost always
3. do not meet
15. Skin a patient with a cerebral hemorrhage more often:
1. pale
2. regular color
3. hyperemic
16. Liquor for hemorrhagic stroke:
1. bloody
2. opalescent
3. colorless
17. ECHO-EG for hemorrhage in the brain parenchyma /hematoma type/:
1. M-ECHO without displacement
2. M-ECHO displacement is more than 3 mm
3. M-ECHO displacement is more than 14 mm Answer: 2
18. In a blood test for hemorrhagic stroke:
2. leukopenia
3. leukocytosis
19. The most common picture of the fundus in ischemic stroke:
2. retinal hemorrhages
3. retinal angiosclerosis
4. congestive optic disc
20. Consciousness during ischemic stroke is more often:
3. not broken
21. The circle of Willis includes arteries:
1. forebrain
2. front connecting
3. eye
4. midbrain
5. hindbrain
6. rear connecting
7. superior cerebellar
Answer: 1, 2, 4, 5, 6.
22. The density of the capillary network in the brain is proportional to:
1. number of nerve cells
2. surface area of nerve cells
3. intensity of functioning of nerve cells
Answer: 2, 3.
23. Focal symptoms characteristic of thrombosis of the right middle cerebral artery:
1. sensory aphasia
2. left-sided central hemiparesis
3. left-sided hemianopsia
4. swallowing disorders
5. right-sided hemihypesthesia
Answer: 2, 3.
24. Focal symptoms characteristic of thrombosis of the anterior cerebral artery:
1. visual impairment
2. central leg paresis
3. central paresis of the arm
4. mental disorders
5. meningeal symptoms
Answer: 2, 4.
25. Focal symptoms characteristic of thrombosis of the posterior cerebral artery:
1. homonymous hemianopsia
2. visual agnosia
3. central hemiparesis
4. motor aphasia
5. coma
Answer: 1, 2.
26. Focal symptoms characteristic of thrombosis vertebral artery:
1. alternating syndrome
2. cerebellar ataxia
3. nystagmus
4. headache
5. meningeal symptoms
Answer: 1, 2, 3.
27. Focal symptoms characteristic of basilar artery thrombosis:
1. damage to the cranial nerves
2. tetraparesis
3. disorder of consciousness
Answer: 1, 2.
28. Etiological factors of ischemic stroke:
1. hypertension
2. atherosclerosis
3. heart rhythm disturbances
4. systemic vasculitis
5. blood diseases
Answer: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
29. Etiological factors of cerebral hemorrhage:
1. hypertension
2. arteriovenous malformations
3. stenosis of intracranial vessels
4. systemic vasculitis
5. blood diseases
6. embolism in ischemic heart disease
7. secondary renal hypertension
Answer: 1, 2, 4, 5, 7.
30. Hemorrhagic strokes include:
1. thrombotic strokes
2. parenchymal hemorrhages
3. intrathecal hemorrhages
4. ventricular hemorrhages
5. embolic strokes
6. combined forms of hemorrhages
Answer: 2, 3, 4, 6.
31. Hemorrhage in the brain develops as a result of:
1. rupture of the vessel
2. thrombosis
3. diapedesis
Answer: 1, 3.
32. Symptoms characteristic of hemorrhagic stroke of the hematoma type:
1. sudden onset
2. flickering symptoms
3. impaired consciousness
4. meningeal symptoms
5. high blood pressure
Answer: 1, 3, 4, 5.
33. Symptoms characteristic of subarachnoid hemorrhage:
1. sudden headache
2. hemiparesis
3. gradual increase in symptoms
4. meningeal symptoms
Answer: 1, 4.
34. Symptoms characteristic of parenchymal hemorrhage:
1. disturbance of consciousness
2. hemiplegia
3. increased blood pressure
4. flickering symptoms
5. gaze paralysis
6. Kernig's sign
Answer: 1, 2, 3, 5, 6.
35. Ischemic non-embolic stroke is characterized by its onset:
1. acute
2. gradual /several hours/
3. in the morning after sleep
4. after psycho-emotional stress
5. after taking a hot bath
Answer: 2, 3, 5.
36. General cerebral symptoms characteristic of ischemic stroke:
1. headache
2. hemiparesis
3. nausea
4. transient visual impairment
5. rapid development of coma
6. meningeal symptoms
Answer: 1, 3.
37. Changes in the cerebrospinal fluid characteristic of ischemic stroke:
1. lymphocytic pleocytosis
2. number of lymphocytes - 1-5 in 1 µl
3. opalescence
4. amount of protein - 0.2-0.4 g/l
5. amount of protein - 0.9-1.2 g/l
Answer: 2, 4.
38. Most informative diagnostic methods examinations for ischemic stroke:
1. electroencephalography
2. Angiography of cerebral vessels
3. lumbar puncture
4. CT scan
5. ventriculography
6. pneumoencephalography
Answer: 2, 3, 4.
39. Drugs of choice for relieving cerebral edema in ischemic stroke:
1. steroid hormones
2. glycerin
3. furosemide
Answer: 1, 2, 3.
40. Antibiotics for ischemic stroke are prescribed for:
1. treatment of the underlying disease
2. prevention of pneumonia
3. prevention of bedsores
4. prevention of urinary infection
Answer: 2, 4.
41. To improve the rheological properties of blood during ischemic stroke, it is advisable to use:
1. rheopolyglucin
2. aminophylline
3. trentala
4. aspirin
5. fibrinogen
6. vikasola
Answer: 1, 2, 3, 4.
42. Tactics for managing patients with hemorrhagic stroke in the acute period:
1. elevated head position
2. lowered head position
3. ensuring airway patency
4. fight against cerebral edema
5. fight against pulmonary edema
6. prevention of pneumonia
7. normalization of blood pressure
8. prescription of drugs that reduce blood clotting
Answer: 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7.
43. Drugs indicated for the treatment of patients with hemorrhagic stroke:
1. dibazole, clofelline
2. antibiotics
3. analgin
4. heparin
5. ascorbic acid
Answer: 1, 2, 3, 5.
44. Tactics for managing patients with hemorrhagic stroke in recovery period:
1. extension of bed rest after 2 weeks
2. extension of bed rest after 4-8 weeks
3. prescription of nootropic drugs
4. prescription of anticoagulants
5. massage of paralyzed limbs
Answer: 2, 3, 5, 6.
45. For the treatment of ischemic non-thrombotic stroke, it is most advisable to use:
1. direct anticoagulants
2. antiplatelet agents
3. anticoagulants indirect action
4. drugs that improve brain metabolism
Answer: 2, 4
ADD:
46. Ischemic strokes are classified into:
1. thrombotic
2. ________________
3._________________
Answer: non-thrombotic, embolic.
47. The diagnosis of transient ischemic attack is made if all focal symptoms regress within ______________.
Answer: 24 hours.
48. The diagnosis of transient ischemic attack is made if
within 24 hours all _______________ symptoms regress. Answer: focal.
49. In the clinic of ischemic stroke, ________________ symptoms prevail over ________________ symptoms.
Answer: focal over cerebral.
50. Acute disorders cerebral circulation are classified:
1. __________ ____________ ____________ .
2. minor stroke
3. lacunar stroke
4. ___________ ____________ .
5. ___________ ____________ Answer: transient ischemic attack
ischemic stroke
hemorrhagic stroke
51. The medial and superior outer surface of the frontal and parietal lobes, the anterior part of the corpus callosum are supplied with blood by the ___________ ___________ artery.
Answer: forebrain.
52. The convexital surface of the frontal, parietal and temporal lobes, the internal capsule, and subcortical nodes are supplied with blood by the ___________ ____________ artery.
Answer: midbrain.
53. The occipital lobes, the basal surface of the temporal lobes are supplied with blood by the ______________ _____________ artery.
Answer: posterior brain.
54. General cerebral complaints, emotional lability, decreased memory and attention, sleep disturbances, focal neurological microsymptoms characterize the clinic of the ______________ _____________ ___ stage.
Answer: stage 1 dyscirculatory encephalopathy.
55. General cerebral complaints, decreased criticism of one’s condition, dementia, the presence of pyramidal, pseudobulbar, akinetic-rigid syndromes, an increase in clinical symptoms with age characterize the clinic of the _____________ ____________ ____ stage.
Answer: dyscirculatory encephalopathy stage 3
ESTABLISH MATCH;
56. Vascular basin: Symptoms of damage:
1. internal carotid artery A. central hemiparesis with predominance in the arm
2. middle cerebral artery B. opticopyramidal syndrome
3. anterior cerebral artery B. central hemiparesis with predominance in the leg
Answer: 1-B 2-A 3-B
57. Vascular basin: Symptoms of damage:
1. middle cerebral artery A. central tetraparesis, 2-sided pore-
cranial nerve activity
2. posterior cerebral artery B. homonymous hemianopsia
3. basilar artery B. central hemiparesis, hemihypesthesia
Answer: 1- B 2- B 3- A
58. Vascular basin: Symptoms of damage:
1. left middle cerebral artery A. right-sided hemianopsia
2. left posterior cerebral artery B. motor aphasia
3. left cerebellar artery B. left-sided hemiataxia
Answer: 1- B 2- A 3- C
59. Vascular basin: Symptoms of damage:
1. right cerebellar artery A. spastic hypertension of the left extremities
2. right middle cerebral artery B. hypotension of the right extremities
3. right internal carotid artery B. transient blindness of the right eye Answer: 1- B 2- A 3- C
60. Vascular basin: Symptoms of damage:
1. vertebral artery A. mental disorders
2. middle cerebral artery B. alternating syndrome
3. anterior cerebral artery B. internal capsule lesion syndrome
Answer: 1- B 2- C 3- A
61. Disease: Symptoms:
1. subarachnoid hemorrhage A. gradual onset
2. ischemic thrombotic stroke B. sudden onset
B. meningeal symptoms
G. hemiparesis
D. hemianesthesia
E. increased body temperature
G. bloody or xanthochromic cerebrospinal fluid
Z. hypodensity zone on CT scan Answer: 1- B, C, E, G. 2- A, D, E, H.
62. Stages of dyscirculatory encephalopathy: Symptoms:
1. first A. emotional lability
2. third B. dementia
B. sleep disturbance
G. akinetic-rigid syndrome
D. pseudobulbar syndrome
E. anisoreflexia
G. symptoms of oral automatism
H. reduction of criticism Answer: 1- A, B, E, G, G. 2- B, C, D, E, F, G, Z.
63. Disease: Symptoms:
1. ischemic stroke A. hypertension syndrome
2. brain tumor B. acute onset
B. hyperdense zone on CT
D. hypodensity zone on CT scan
D. increase in the amount of protein in the cerebrospinal fluid
Answer: 1- B, D. 2- A, B, D.
64. Disease: Symptoms:
1. parenchymal-subarachnoid A. headache
hemorrhage B. vomiting
2. subarachnoid hemorrhage B. hemiplegia
D. meningeal symptoms
D. aphasia
E. hemianopsia Answer: 1- A, B, C, D, E, E. 2- A, B, G.
65. Disease: Symptoms:
1. hemorrhagic stroke A. gradual onset
2. ischemic thrombotic stroke B. flickering symptoms
B. acute onset
D. meningeal symptoms
D. hemiplegia
E. bloody cerebrospinal fluid Answer: 1- C, D, D, E. 2- A, B, D.
66. Pathophysiological stages of ischemic stroke:
Thrombosis
Vessel lumen stenosis
Slowing blood flow
Hypoxic tissue ischemia
Answer: 3, 1, 2, 4, 5.
67. Sequence of origin of the arteries of the carotid system:
Internal sleepy
Middle cerebral
General sleepiness
Orbital
Forebrain Answer: 2, 4, 1, 3, 5.
68. Anatomical sequence of arteries forming the Circle of Willis:
Basilar
Rear connecting
Vertebral
Middle cerebral
Front connecting
Posterior brain
Forebrain Answer: 2, 4, 1, 5, 7, 3, 6.
69. Frequency of occurrence of variants of the course of ischemic stroke / from the most frequent /:
With a gradual increase in symptoms over several hours
Apoplectiform development of symptoms
Pseudotumorous development of symptoms Answer: 1, 2, 3.
70. Frequency etiological factors development of hemorrhagic stroke /from the most common/:
Arterial hypertension
Vascular atherosclerosis
Vessel aneurysm
Diapedesis with somatic pathology Answer: 1, 3, 2, 4.
TOPIC 2. TRANO BRAIN INJURY.
SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWERS.
71. Symptoms of a concussion are typical:
1. prolonged disorder of consciousness /more than 30 minutes/
2. headache
3. nausea, vomiting
4. meningeal symptoms
Answer: 2.3.
72. Symptoms of a brain contusion are typical:
1. short-term disorder of consciousness /3-5 minutes/
2. focal symptoms of brain damage
3. meningeal symptoms
4. fractures of the skull bones on craniograms Answer: 2,3,4.
73. For compression of the brain by traumatic intracranial hematoma
typical symptoms:
1. disorder of consciousness
2. presence of a “light gap”
3. M-ECHO displacement during ECHO-EG
4. bradycardia Answer: 1,2,3,4.
74. Infectious complications of open craniocerebral injury:
1. meningitis
2. brain abscess
3. osteomyelitis
4. carotid-cavernous anastomosis Answer: 1,2,3.
75. For a fracture of the base of the skull in the anterior region cranial fossa characteristic
symptoms:
1. Nazarite
2. "late" glasses
3. psychomotor agitation
4. peripheral damage to the facial nerve
Answer: 1,2,3.
ESTABLISH MATCH;
76. Disease: Symptoms:
1. concussion A. meningeal
2. brain contusion B. focal neurological symptoms
B. disorder of consciousness
D. fractures of the skull bones Answer: 1 - C. 2 - A, B, C, D.
77. Complications of acute TBI: Symptoms:
1. meningitis A. meningeal
2. carotid-cavernous anastomosis B. pulsating noise in the head
B. exophthalmos
D. neutrophilic pleocytosis in the cerebrospinal fluid Answer: 1 - A, D 2 - B, C.
78. Disease: Symptoms:
1. brain contusion A. disorder of consciousness
2. compression of the brain B. focal neurological symptoms
B. presence of a “light” gap
D. anisocoria Answer: 1 - A, B 2 - A, B, C, D.
79. Fracture of the base of the skull: Symptoms:
1. anterior cranial fossa A. nazarite
2. middle cranial fossa B. otorrhea
B. "late" glasses
D. damage to the facial nerve Answer: 1 - A, B. 2 - B, G.
80. Consequences of TBI: Symptoms:
1. hydrocephalus A. frequent headaches
2. convulsive syndrome B. seizures
B. decreased vision
D. vomiting Answer: 1 - A, B, D. 2 - A, B.
ADD:
81. The time from the moment of receiving a TBI to the onset of symptoms of brain compression is called ____________ ____________.
Answer: light gap
82. TBI, in which the dura mater is mechanically damaged, is called _____________.
Answer: penetrating.
83. TBI, in which damage to the skin and bone coincide in projection, is called ______________.
Answer: open
84. A complication of TBI, in which neutrophilic pleocytosis appears in the cerebrospinal fluid, is called ______________.
Answer: meningitis
85. A complication of TBI, in which pulsating exophthalmos appears and noise in the head is called ___________ - ____________ _____________.
Answer: carotid-cavernous anastomosis
ESTABLISH SEQUENCE:
86. Examination of a patient diagnosed with cerebral compression:
Angiography
Neurological examination
ECHO-EG Answer: 3,4,1,2.
87. Examination of a patient diagnosed with carotid-cavernous anastomosis:
Angiography
Neurological examination
Auscultation of the head
Examination by an ophthalmologist Answer: 3,4,5,2,1.
88. Craniogram assessments:
Presence of radiological signs of cracks
Labeling of radiographs
Assessing correct head positioning
Craniographic features intracranial hypertension Answer: 2,3,4,1.
89. Formulations of neurosurgical diagnosis for acute TBI:
Brain damage
Bone damage
Type of injury / open or closed /
Presence of complications Answer: 3,2,1,4.
90. Development of pathophysiological mechanisms of severe brain contusion:
Brain swelling
Metabolic acidosis
Appearance of an area of necrosis
Hypoxia
Increased intracranial pressure
Brain dislocation Answer: 2,5,1,4,3,6.
TOPIC 3. BRAIN TUMORS.
SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWERS:
91. Symptoms characteristic of frontal lobe tumors:
1. hemiparesis
2. motor aphasia
3. Jacksonian motor seizures
4. sensitivity disorders Answer: 1,2,3.
92. Symptoms characteristic of tumors of the temporal lobe:
1. auditory, olfactory hallucinations
2. motor aphasia
3. homonymous hemianopsia /or quadrant/.
4. sensory aphasia Answer: 1,3,4.
93. Symptoms characteristic of pituitary adenoma:
1. acromegaly
2. bitemporal hemianopsia
3. hemiparesis
4. hearing impairment Answer: 1.2.
94. Symptoms characteristic of cerebellar tumors:
1. muscle hypotonia in the limbs on the affected side
2. horizontal nystagmus
3. impaired sense of smell
4. congestive optic discs Answer: 1,2,4.
95. Symptoms characteristic of neuroma of the 8th pair:
1. noise in the ear
2. hearing loss
3. hemiparesis
4. hemihypesthesia Answer: 1,2.
MATCH:
96. Tumor localization: Tumor type:
1. supratentorial A. pituitary adenoma
2. subtentorial B. neuroma 8 pairs
B. cerebellar astrocytoma
D. craniopharyngioma Answer: 1 - A, G. 2 - B, V.
97. Tumor localization: Histological structure:
1. intracerebral A. glioblastoma
2. extracerebral B. astrocytoma
B. meningioma
D. ependymoma Answer: 1 - A, B, D. 2 - V.
98. Tumor localization: Histological structure:
1. extraventricular A. ependymoma
2. intraventricular B. meningioma
B. pituitary adenoma
D. neuroma Answer: 1 - B, C, D. 2 - A.
99. Syndromes: Clinical manifestations:
1. chiasmatic A. bitemporal hemianopsia
2. dislocation B. bradycardia
B. primary optic nerve atrophy
D. breathing disorders Answer: 1 - A, B. 2 - B, G.
100. Type of syndrome: Clinical manifestations:
1. cerebral hypertension A. paroxysmal night headaches
syndrome B. congestive optic discs
2. focal symptoms B. disorder of consciousness
D. acromegaly Answer: 1 - A, B, C. 2- G.
ADD:
101. A syndrome in which atrophy of the optic disc in one eye is combined with a congestive disc in the other occurs when there is a tumor on the _____________ surface of the ______________ lobe.
Answer: basal surface of the frontal lobe.
102. A change in the fundus of the eye that occurs after congestive discs and leads to blindness is called ____________ ______________ disc.
Answer: secondary atrophy.
103. Impaired consciousness and the appearance of vital bulbar disturbances in a patient with hypertension syndrome indicate the occurrence of _____________ syndrome. Answer: dislocation.
104. The syndrome that occurs when a tumor occludes the cerebrospinal fluid pathways is called _______________.
Answer: hypertensive.
105. For emergency treatment of hypertensive-dislocation syndrome, _______________ ____________ /minor neurosurgical intervention/ is used.
Answer: ventricular drainage.
ESTABLISH SEQUENCE:
106. Examination of a patient diagnosed with subtentorial tumor:
Angiography
Neurological examination Answer: 3,2,1.
107. Medical measures for hypertension syndrome:
Intravenous dehydration therapy
Bed rest
Monitoring pulse, blood pressure, respiration
Neurosurgical examination of the patient
Liquor shunt operations
Answer: 3,1,2,4,5.
108. Occurrence of symptoms in supratentorial tumors:
General cerebral symptoms
Focal symptoms
Secondary optic nerve atrophy Answer: 2,1,3.
109. Occurrence of symptoms in tumors of the cerebellopontine angle /neurinma of the 8th pair/.
Paresis of facial muscles
Hearing loss
Noise in the ear
Loss of sensitivity in the face and development of convergent strabismus
The appearance of cerebellar symptoms Answer: 3,2,1,4,5.
110. Therapeutic measures for a patient with malignant tumor brain:
Partial tumor removal
Elimination of intracranial hypertension
Chemotherapy and radiation therapy
Histological examination tumors Answer: 2,1,4,3.
TOPIC 4. TUMORS OF THE SPINAL CORD.
SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWERS:
111. Symptoms characteristic of extramedullary tumors:
1. impaired pain sensitivity
2. radicular pain
3. presence of a block of the subarachnoid space
4. hearing impairment
Answer: 1,2,3.
112. Symptoms characteristic of an extramedullary tumor:
1. Brown-Séquard syndrome
2. complete transverse lesion of the spinal cord
3. radicular pain
4. protein-cell dissociation in the cerebrospinal fluid Answer: 1,2,3,4.
113. Intramedullary tumors include:
1. meningioma
2. neuroma
3. ependymoma
Answer: 3.4.
114. Symptoms characteristic of initial stage intramedullary tumor at the C5-C8 level:
1. impairment of surface sensitivity, initially in the proximal parts
2. flaccid paresis, paralysis
3. spastic paresis, paralysis
4. trophic disorders
5. pelvic disorders Answer: 1,2,4.
115. Symptoms characteristic of a tumor of the upper thoracic spinal cord: /extramedullary/:
1. pain when tapping the spinous processes of the vertebrae
2. tetraparesis
3. lower paraparesis
4. dysfunction of the pelvic organs Answer: 1,3,4.
MATCH:
116. Disease: Symptoms:
1. tumor of the upper cervical region A. pain when moving the head
spinal cord B. pain radiating to the upper extremities
2. tumor of the lower cervical region B. flaccid paresis of the upper extremities and central
spinal cord lower
D. spastic tetraparesis Answer: 1 - A, D. 2 - B, V.
117. Disease: Symptoms:
thoracic region B. violation of pelvic functions
2. tumor of the cauda equina B. lower spastic paraparesis
G. hypoesthesia in the perineum and lower extremities
D. inferior flaccid paraparesis
/often asymmetrical/
Answer: 1 - A, B, C. 2 - A, B, D, D.
118. Disease: Symptoms:
1. extramedullary tumor A. radicular pain
B. progressive course
2. radiculopathy vertebrogen- B. reversibility of symptoms with conservative
treatment
G. protein-cell dissociation in the cerebrospinal fluid
D. spread of sensory disorders from bottom to top
Answer: 1 - A, B, D, D. 2 - A, B.
119. Disease: Symptoms:
1. intramedullary tumor A. signs of dysmorphogenesis
B.d duration of the disease is 5-10 years
2. syringomyelia B. rapid increase in symptoms of the lesion
diameter of the spinal cord
G.vegetative-trophic disorders
D. flaccid paresis of the limbs Answer: 1 - C, D, E. 2 - A, B, D, D.
120. Disease: Histological structure:
1. primary tumor of the spinal A. neuroma
brain B. glioblastoma
2. secondary tumor of the spinal V. lipoma
brain G. cancer metastases
Answer: 1 - A, B, C. 2 - G.
ADD:
121. A change in the cerebrospinal fluid due to a spinal cord tumor is called ________- _________ _____________. Answer: protein-cell dissociation.
122. The X-ray symptom of atrophy of the roots of the arches and an increase in the distance between them as a result of tumor pressure is called the symptom _________ - _________ / by last name / Answer: Ellsberg - Dyck.
123. A progressive disease of the spinal cord, characterized by the proliferation of glia and the formation of cavities in the gray matter, is called _________________.
Answer: syringomyelia.
124. X-ray examination patency of the subarachnoid space of the spinal cord is called ____________ ______________.
Answer: contrast myelography.
125. Spinal cord tumors are classified by location into extramedullary and _____________.
Answer: intramedullary.
ESTABLISH SEQUENCE:
126. Examination of a patient with a spinal cord tumor:
X-ray of the spine
Neurological examination
Lumbar puncture with CSF tests. Answer: 2,4,1,3.
127. Development of symptoms with extramedullary tumor:
Brown-Séquard syndrome
Radicular stage
Stage of complete transverse lesion of the spinal cord Answer: 2,1,3.
128. Development of symptoms with intramedullary tumor:
The appearance of conductive sensitivity disorders
Complete transverse spinal cord syndrome
Segmental sensitivity disorders of the dissociated type Answer: 2,3,1.
129. Diagnosis formulations for a spinal cord tumor:
Primary or secondary
Level of spinal cord injury
Extra- or intramedullary Answer: 1,3,2.
130. Carrying out the Queckenstedt test:
CSF analysis
Lumbar puncture
Compression of the jugular veins
Measuring the initial level of cerebrospinal fluid pressure
2nd pressure measurement
3rd pressure measurement
Stopping pressure on the jugular veins Answer: 7,1,3,2,4,6,5.
TOPIC 5. INFECTIOUS DISEASES OF THE NERVOUS SYSTEM.
ENCEPHALITIS, MENINGITIS.
SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWERS:
131. Symptoms characteristic of tick-borne encephalitis:
1. central hemiparesis
2. flaccid paresis of the upper limbs
3. conduction sensitivity disorders
4. "dangling head"
5. bulbar disorders
6. convergent strabismus
7. sleep disorder
8. lymphocytic pleocytosis in the cerebrospinal fluid
9. Kozhevnikov epilepsy Answer: 2,4,5,8,9.
132. Symptoms characteristic of acute stage epidemic encephalitis:
1. bulbar syndrome
2. accommodation paresis, diplopia
3. pathological drowsiness
4. autonomic disorders /hypersalivation, hyperhidrosis, hiccups/
5. Intermittent urinary incontinence
6. reverse Argyle-Robertson syndrome Answer: 2,3,4,6.
133. Symptoms characteristic of chronic stage epidemic encephalitis:
1. paralysis of limbs
2. hypokinesia
3. headache
4. muscle rigidity
5. static tremor
6. bilateral ptosis
8. impaired consciousness Answer: 2,4,5.
134. Symptoms characteristic of mosquito encephalitis:
1. seasonality
2. peripheral paralysis of the upper limbs
3. epileptic seizures
4. impaired consciousness
5. sharp headache, vomiting
6. increase in body temperature up to 40 degrees
7.meningeal symptoms
8. paralysis of accommodation Answer: 1,3,4,5,6,7.
135. Symptoms characteristic of acute myelitis:
1. general infectious syndrome
2. disorder of consciousness
3. radicular pain
4. psychomotor agitation, delirium
5. paresis of the lower extremities
6. conduction sensitivity disorders
7. pleocytosis in the cerebrospinal fluid Answer: 1,3,5,6,7.
136. Symptoms characteristic of tuberculous meningitis:
1. presence of a primary focus in the lungs
2. acute onset
3. symptoms of intoxication
4. prodromal period 2-3 weeks
5. neutrophilic pleocytosis in the cerebrospinal fluid
6. lymphocytic pleocytosis in the cerebrospinal fluid with high content squirrel
7. increased sugar content in the liquor Answer: 1,3,4,6.
137. The basic treatment regimen for tuberculous meningitis includes:
1. isoniazid 15 mg/kg body weight per day
2. rifampicin 600 mg per day
3. penicillin 12 million units per day
4. streptomycin 1g per day
5. seduxen up to 3 tablets. per day Answer: 1,2,4.
138. The causative agents of primary serous meningitis include:
1. Coxsackie enterovirus
2. polio virus
3. mumps virus
4. enterovirus ECHO
5. streptococcus Answer: 1.4.
139. Secondary purulent meningitis can develop due to:
1. penetrating injury to the skull
2. purulent otitis media
3. purulent sinusitis
4. meningococcemia
5. bronchiectasis Answer: 1,2,3,5.
140. Symptoms characteristic of meningitis:
1.general hyperesthesia
2. headache
4. normal composition cerebrospinal fluid
5. rigidity occipital muscles
6. spread of the infectious process to the brain substance Answer: 1,2,3,5.
MATCH:
141. Disease: Symptoms:
1. tick-borne encephalitis A. incubation period 10-14 days
2. epidemic encephalitis B. seasonality of the disease
B. pathological drowsiness
G. oculomotor disorders
D. bulbar syndrome
E. peripheral paresis of the upper extremities Answer: 1 - A, B, D, E. 2 - V, G.
142. Chronic form of encephalitis: Symptoms:
1. tick-borne A. Kozhevnikovskaya epilepsy
2. epidemic B. flaccid paresis of the arms
B. akinetic-rigid syndrome
D. choreathetosis, gaze convulsion Answer: 1 - A, B. 2 - C, D.
143. Disease: Symptoms:
1. tick-borne encephalitis A. pathogen-filterable neurotropic
2. mosquito encephalitis virus
B. acute onset, high fever
B. decreased muscle tone, muscle atrophy
D. disturbance of speech, phonation, swallowing
D. hemorrhagic rash Answer: 1- A, B, C, D. 2- A, B, D.
144. Disease: Symptoms:
1. tick-borne encephalitis A. pathogen-filterable neurotropic
2. epidemic encephalitis virus
B. pathogen unknown
The transmission route is transmissible, nutritional
G. bulbar syndrome
D. oculo-lethargic syndrome
E. diagnostics using RSK, RN, RTGA
Answer: 1- A, B, D, E. 2- B, D.
145. Disease: Symptoms:
1. tick-borne encephalitis A. tetraparesis or lower paraparesis
2. acute myelitis B. flaccid paresis of the upper limbs
B. conductive hypoesthesia
D. dysfunction of the pelvic organs
D. trophic disorders
E. “hanging head” Answer: 1- B, E. 2- A, B, D, D.
146. Disease: Symptoms:
1. tuberculous meningitis A. acute onset
2. meningococcal meningitis B. subacute onset
B. meningeal symptoms
D. damage to the cranial nerves
D. neutrophilic pleocytosis in the cerebrospinal fluid
E. lymphocytic pleocytosis in the cerebrospinal fluid Answer: 1 - B, C, D, E. 2 - A, B, D, D.
ADD:
151. The syndrome, expressed in the absence of a reaction of the pupils to accommodation with convergence with a preserved reaction of the pupils to light, is characteristic of: _________________ encephalitis.
Answer: epidemic.
152. Routes of infection into the human body with tick-borne encephalitis:
AND _____________ .
Answer: transmissible and nutritional.
153. Pathomorphological changes in tick-borne encephalitis mainly develop in ____________; ___________ brain, _____________ ____________
spinal cord.
Answer: shells; brain stem, cervical enlargement of the spinal cord.
154. In Russia, mosquito encephalitis is widespread in __________ __________ and _____________ region.
Answer: Far East and Primorsky Territory.
155. The typical clinical picture of the chronic stage of epidemic encephalitis is called ______________ syndrome /last name/.
Answer: Parkinson's syndrome.
156 A symptom in which the doctor cannot bend the patient’s head forward is called __________ ___________ ___________
Answer: Stiff neck
157. A symptom in which the doctor cannot straighten the patient’s leg at the knee joint, previously bent at the hip and knee, is called __________/surname/
Answer: Kernig
158. A symptom in which the patient’s legs bend at the knees and hip joints when bending the head forward, it is called ______________ ____________ /surname/. Answer: Brudzinsky upper.
159. Neutrophilic pleocytosis in the cerebrospinal fluid is a sign of ___________ meningitis.
Answer: purulent
160. An increase in the number of cells in the cerebrospinal fluid is called ______________.
Answer: pleocytosis
ESTABLISH SEQUENCE:
161. Development of clinical symptoms in tick-borne encephalitis:
- "hanging head"
Headache, vomiting
Flaccid plegia of the upper limbs
Increased body temperature / 38-39 degrees /
Meningeal symptoms Answer: 5,2,4,1,3.
162. Medical measures for viral encephalitis:
Exercise therapy, massage
Detoxification and dehydration therapy
Etiological therapy /acyclovir, Y-globulin/
Metabolic drugs, vitamins, HBOT
Bed rest Answer: 5,3,2,4,1.
163. Medical measures in the treatment of the chronic stage of epidemic encephalitis:
Preparations based on L-DOPA
Stereotactic surgery
Central anticholinergics /cyclodol, norakin/ Answer: 3, 2, 4, 1.
164. Frequency of occurrence of clinical forms of tick-borne encephalitis at present
/from the most frequent/:
Poliomyelitis
Meningeal
Polyradiculoneuritic Answer: 2,1,3.
165. Frequency of occurrence viral encephalitis in the Western European region of Russia / from most frequent /:
Kleshchevoy
Komariny
Epidemic Economo
Answer: 1,3,2.
TOPIC 6. INJURY OF THE SPINE AND SPINAL CORD.
SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWERS:
166. Symptoms characteristic of spinal cord contusion:
1. reversibility of neurological symptoms within a few hours
2. persistent motor and sensory disorders
3. dysfunction of the pelvic organs
4. violation of the patency of the subarachnoid space
Answer: 2.3.
167. Symptoms characteristic of spinal cord compression:
1. increasing motor and sensory disorders
2. violation of the patency of the subarachnoid space
3. fractures of vertebral bodies and arches
4. absence of focal neurological symptoms Answer: 1,2,3.
168. Symptoms characteristic of half the diameter of the spinal cord:
1. peripheral paraparesis
2. rapidly developing trophic disorders
3. central paresis on the affected side
4. disturbances in pain and temperature sensitivity on the opposite side
5. dysfunction of the pelvic organs
6. violation of deep sensitivity on the affected side Answer: 3,4,6.
169. Symptoms of spinal cord injury at the level of the thoracic segments:
1. central lower paraparesis
2. flaccid lower paraplegia
4. diaphragmatic paralysis Answer: 1.3.
170. Symptoms of spinal cord damage at the level of the lumbar enlargement /L1-S2/:
1. peripheral lower paraparesis
2. central lower paraparesis
3. loss of sensation from the Pupart ligament
4. disappearance of the knee and Achilles reflexes Answer: 1,3,4.
MATCH:
171. Disease: Symptoms:
1.spinal cord concussion A. transient sensory disturbances
2.spinal cord contusion B. paresthesia
B. persistent paralysis of the limbs
D. dysfunction of the pelvic organs Answer: 1 - A, B. 2 - C, D.
172. Level of spinal cord damage Symptoms:
1. upper cervical region /C1-C4/ A. spastic tetraplegia
2. lumbar thickening /L1-S2/ B. dysfunction of the pelvic organs
B. breathing disorder
D. flaccid lower paraparesis Answer: 1 - A, B, C. 2 - B, G.
173. Level of spinal cord injury: Symptoms:
1. lower cervical region /C5-C8/ A. flaccid paralysis hands
2. thoracic region/T3-T12/ B. spastic paralysis of the legs
B. Claude-Bernard-Horner syndrome
D. dysfunction of the pelvic organs Answer: 1 - A, B, C, D. 2 - B, G.
174. Disease: Symptoms:
1. compression of the spinal cord A. obstruction of patency
subarachnoid space
2. spinal cord concussion B. protein-cell dissociation
in the liquor
B. fractures of vertebral bodies with displacement
D. reversibility of neurological symptoms within a few hours
Answer: 1 - A, B, C. 2 - G.
175. X-ray signs of spinal injury:
spinal canal deformities:
1. there is deformation A. damage to the ligamentous apparatus
2. no deformation B. dislocation, subluxation of the vertebrae
B. compression, comminuted fractures of vertebral bodies
D. combined fractures of the bodies and arches Answer: 1 - B, C, D. 2 - A.
ADD:
176. Hemorrhage into the gray matter of the spinal cord is called _________________.
Answer: hematomyelia.
177. Damage to the spine and spinal cord with disruption of the integrity of the wall of the spinal canal is called __________________. Answer: penetrating.
178. Suppression of reflex functions in response to spinal cord injury is called
_______________ _________ .
Answer: spinal shock.
179. A study in which the patency of the subarachnoid space of the spinal cord is assessed by changes in cerebrospinal fluid pressure is called _________________ ___________.
Answer: liquorodynamic test
180. Damage to half the diameter of the spinal cord is called ________ - ________ syndrome /surname/
Answer: Brown-Sekar.
TOPIC 7. EPILEPSY. MYASTHENIAS.
SELECT ONE CORRECT ANSWER:
181. Absence differs from petit mal:
1. nature of the seizure
2. occurring at certain hours
3. EEG - characteristic Answer: 3
182. To relieve status epilepticus the following is used:
1. seduxen
3. ganglion blockers Answer: 1
183. Type of inheritance in epilepsy:
1. autosomal dominant
2. autosomal recessive
3. polygenic Answer: 3
184. During myasthenic crisis it is necessary:
1. administer respiratory analeptics
2. administer proserin intravenously
3. administer oxazil per os Answer: 2
185. The most informative study for identifying thymoma in myasthenia gravis:
1. pneumomediastinography
2. phlebography
3. MRI - tomography Answer: 3
SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWERS:
186. The main inhibitory neurotransmitters in epilepsy:
2. serotonin
3. glutamate
4. norepinephrine
5. histamine Answer: 1,2,4.
187. In epilepsy, the following are genetically determined:
1. convulsive readiness of the brain
2. condition cell membranes
3. epilepsy of neurons
4. energy balance of the cell Answer: 1.3.
188. Diagnostic tests for myasthenia gravis:
2. proserine test
3. motor load test
4. atropine test
5. electromyography
Answer: 2,3,5.
189. Clinical signs of myasthenia gravis:
1. general malaise
2. muscle weakness
3. change in heart rate
4. diplopia
5. Symptoms increase during the day
6. the onset of symptoms in the early morning hours Answer: 2,4,5.
190. Symptoms characteristic of the ocular form of myasthenia:
1. lagophthalmos
2. chewing disorder
4. diplopia
5. dysphagia
6. strabismus Answer: 3,4,6.
MATCH:
191. Type of epileptic seizure: Clinical manifestations:
1. partial A. complex
2. generalized B. petit mal
D. simple Answer: 1 - A, G. 2 - B, V.
192. Type of epileptic seizure: Clinical manifestations:
1. simple A. motor
2. complex B. epileptic automatisms
V. with impaired consciousness
D. sensory Answer: 1 - A, G. 2 - B, V.
193. Type of epileptic seizure: Clinical manifestations:
1. Jacksonian epilepsy A. focal seizures
2. temporal lobe epilepsy B. vegetative-visceral crises
B. psycho-emotional disorders
D. attacks of paresthesia Answer: 1 - A, D. 2 - B, C.
194. Course of convulsive syndrome: Medical tactics:
1. first-time epileptic seizure A. observation by a neurologist in
clinic
2.one-time febrile seizures
in a 1 year old child B. hospitalization in a hospital
3. recurrent epileptic seizures B. observation in the intensive care unit
4-5 times a year
Answer: 1 - B. 2 - A. 3 - B.
195. Disease: The most appropriate methods
research:
1. Genuine epilepsy A. EEG
2. seizures due to tumor B. CT scan
brain V. clinical and genealogical
3. seizures in arteriovenous G. ECHO-EG
malformations D. angiography
E. NMR tomography Answer: 1 - A, C. 2 - B, D, E. 3 - D, E.
ESTABLISH SEQUENCE:
196. Phases of a grand mal epileptic seizure:
Clonic
Initial
Tonic
Post-tictal Answer: 3,1,2,4.
197. Development of clinical symptoms during an epileptic seizure:
Tongue bite
Midriaz
Involuntary urination Answer: 3,1,2,4.
198. Medical measures during an epileptic seizure:
Administration of anticonvulsants
Tongue fixation
Preventing patient injury Answer: 3,2,1.
199. Medical measures for epistatus:
Lumbar puncture
Regulation external respiration
Administration of anticonvulsants Answer: 3,1,2.
200. Medical measures for myasthenic crisis:
Oxazil orally 0.01 until muscle weakness regresses
Grade respiratory capacity
Proserin 1 ml 0.5% IV Answer: 3,2,1.
ADD:
201. In epilepsy, personality changes in the form of euphoria and exaltation are characteristic of the localization of the pathological process in the ____________ hemisphere. Answer: right
202. Main inhibitory transmitter in epilepsy: _____________/abbreviation/
Answer: GABA
203. The main excitatory transmitter in epilepsy: _______________.
Answer: glutamate
204. In epilepsy, personality changes in the form of rigidity of mental processes, viscosity, hypochondria are characteristic of the localization of the pathological process in
Hemispheres.
Answer: left
205. In the implementation of hereditary predisposition to epilepsy, ___________ factors play an important role. Answer: exogenous
206. With myasthenia gravis, the pathological process develops in the area of _________ - ______ synapse.
Answer: neuromuscular
207. With myasthenia gravis, a process of autoaggression occurs against ___________ receptors.
Answer: acetylcholine
208. When conducting diagnostic test To detect myasthenia gravis, the patient is given ____________.
Answer: proserin
209. To relieve a myasthenic crisis, the patient is given _____________. Answer: proserin
210. To relieve a cholinergic crisis, the patient is given ______________. Answer: atropine
TOPIC 8. MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS. AMYOTROPHIC LATERAL SCLEROSIS.
CHOOSE ONE CORRECT ANSWER.
211. Multiple sclerosis is a disease of the central nervous system:
1. vascular
2. hereditary
3. demyelinating Answer: 3.
212. Multiple sclerosis occurs more often at the age of:
1. 10 -14 years old
2. 18 - 30 years old
3. 40 - 55 years old Answer: 2.
213. Syndrome characteristic of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis:
1. seizures
2. dysfunction of the pelvic organs
3. amyotrophy with fibrillations and hyperreflexia
4. central monoparesis
5. trophic ulcers Answer: 3.
214. Multiple sclerosis must be differentiated from:
1. meningitis
2. disseminated encephalomyelitis
3. subarachnoid hemorrhage Answer: 2.
215. Symptom characteristic of the bulbar form of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
1. sensory disturbances
2. amblyopia
3. dysarthria and dysphagia
4. atrophy of the lower extremities Answer: 3.
216. In multiple sclerosis, the system most often affected is:
1. sensitive
2. pyramidal and cerebellar
3. strio-nigral Answer: 2.
217. In amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, the system is affected:
1. vegetative
2. motor
3. sensitive Answer: 2.
218. With amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, a combined lesion develops:
1. anterior and posterior horns of the spinal cord
2. anterior horns and pyramidal tract
3. dorsal horns and posterior columns of the spinal cord
4. pyramidal tract and cerebellum Answer: 2.
219. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis often develops at the age of:
1. 20 - 30 years
2. 15 - 20 years
3. 50 - 70 years
4. 30 - 40 years Answer: 3.
220. Syndrome characteristic of multiple sclerosis:
1. retrobulbar neuritis
2. sympathoadrenal crisis
3. Kozhevnikov epilepsy
4. Jacksonian epilepsy Answer: 1.
SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWERS:
221. Multiple sclerosis is characterized by damage to:
1. sensory dorsal ganglia
2. cerebellum
3. olfactory tract
4. pyramid path
5. optic nerve
6. anterior horns of the spinal cord Answer: 2, 4, 5.
222. In multiple sclerosis, lesion visual analyzer appears as:
1. retinal angiopathy
2. retrobulbar neuritis
3. hemianopsia
4. congestive optic disc
5. blanching of the temporal halves of the optic nerve head
6. transient amaurosis
7. visual hallucinations Answer: 2, 5, 6.
223. The cervicothoracic form of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis begins with:
1. weakness in the distal arms
2. seizures
3. dysfunction of the pelvic organs
4. arm muscle atrophy
5. fasciculations
6. visual impairment Answer: 1, 4, 5.
224. For the treatment of multiple sclerosis, the following are used with the greatest effect:
1. antibiotics
2. corticosteroids
3. plasma ferresis
4. calcium channel blockers
5. iron supplements
6. b-ferron Answer: 2, 3, 6.
225. In multiple sclerosis, antigens of the histocompatibility complex /HLA system/ are found:
5. DR1 Answer: 3, 4.
MATCH:
226. Disease: Symptoms:
1.amyotrophic lateral sclerosis A. young age
2. multiple sclerosis B. progressive course
B. pelvic disorders are not typical
G. pelvic disorders are typical
D. old age
E. remitting course
G. muscle atrophy
H. disappearance of abdominal reflexes
I. fasciculations
K. cerebellar disorders Answer: 1 -B,C,D,G,I. 2 - A, G, E, Z, K.
227. Form of multiple sclerosis: Symptoms:
1.cerebral A. nystagmus
2. spinal B. mental disorders
B. lower spastic paraparesis
D. intention tremor
D. pelvic disorders
E. visual impairment Answer: 1 - A, B, D, E. 2 - C, D.
228. Variant of the course of multiple sclerosis: Signs:
1. benign A. long-term remissions
2. malignant B. progressive course
B. frequent exacerbations
G. onset at 35 -40 years old
D. rapid development of hormonal dependence
E. bulbar symptoms Answer: 1 - A, D. 2 - B, C, D, E
229. Therapy for multiple sclerosis: Medications:
1. pathogenetic A. dexazone
2. symptomatic B. ACTH
V. baclofen, mydocalm
G. cyclophosphamide
D. interferron
E. massage
G. psychotropic drugs
Z. proserin Answer: 1 - A, B, D, D. 2 - C, E, G, Z.
230. Differential diagnosis diseases: Symptoms:
1. multiple sclerosis A. strio-nigral syndromes
2. hepato-cerebral dystrophy B. partial atrophy optic discs
B. autosomal recessive type of transmission
D. disorder of copper metabolism
D. liver pathology
E. pyramidal-cerebellar syndromes
G. Kaiser-Fleischer rings
Z. multifactorial disease Answer: 1 - B, E, H. 2 - A, C, D, E, G.
ADD:
231. Multiple sclerosis is characterized by a ________________ course of the disease.
Answer: remitting.
232. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is characterized by a _______________ course of the disease.
Answer: progressive.
233. Atrophy of the temporal halves of the optic discs, a characteristic sign of ______________ ___________ ./disease/.
Answer: multiple sclerosis.
234. Spondylogenic cervical myelopathy must be differentiated from ___________ ___________ __________.
Answer: amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
235. Multiple sclerosis belongs to the group of ___________________ diseases. Answer: demyelinating.
TOPIC 9. Diseases of the peripheral nervous system.
CHOOSE ONE CORRECT ANSWER.
236. The cervical plexus consists of spinal roots:
5. C1-Th2 Answer: 3
237. The brachial plexus consists of spinal roots:
5. C5-C8 Answer: 2
238. Pain along the posterolateral surface of the thigh is characteristic of damage to the root:
4. S1 Answer: 4
239. Damage to the femoral nerve is characterized by:
1. calf flexion
2. shin extension
3. plantar extension of the foot
4. dorsiflexion of the foot
5. Achilles reflex Answer: 2
240. For defeat sciatic nerve characteristic:
1. absence of the Achilles reflex
2. lack of knee reflex
3. hypoesthesia along the anterior surface of the thigh
4. positive Wasserman sign Answer: 1
SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWERS:
241. Damage to the facial nerve is characterized by:
2. hypoesthesia of half the face
3. paresis of the facial muscles of half the face
4. lacrimation
5. divergent strabismus
6. decreased brow reflex
7. Bell's sign
Answer: 3, 4, 6, 7.
242. Damage to the spinal ganglion is characterized by:
1. radicular pain
2. herpetic rashes /herpes zoster/
3. peripheral segmental paresis
4. dissociated type of sensitivity disorder
5. disorder of all types of sensitivity in the corresponding segment
Answer: 1, 2, 5.
243. Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by:
1. attacks of acute pain in the face
2. peripheral paresis of the facial muscles
3. presence of trigger zones on the face
4. decreased taste on the back third of the tongue
5. pain relief by taking finlepsin Answer: 1, 3, 5.
244. Symptoms characteristic of polyneuropathy:
1. hemiparesis
2. conduction type of sensitivity disorder
3. pain along the nerves
4. peripheral paresis of the hands and feet
5. muscle hypertension
6. decreased sensitivity in the distal limbs
7. autonomic disorders in the distal parts of the extremities Answer: 3, 4, 6, 7.
245. Symptoms characteristic of diphtheria polyneuropathy:
1. central tetraparesis
2. bulbar palsy
3. paralysis of accommodation
4. meningeal symptoms
5. pleocytosis in the cerebrospinal fluid
6. parasthesia in the limbs
7. heart rhythm disturbances Answer: 2, 3, 6, 7.
MATCH:
251. Peripheral nerve: Symptom of damage:
1. sciatic A. Lassegue
2. femoral B. Wasserman
V. Matskevich-Shtryumpel
D. "landing" Answer: 1 - A, D. 2 - B, C.
252. Indications for surgical treatment of vertebrogenic radiculopathies:
1. absolute A. block of the subarachnoid space
2. relative B. pain syndrome more than two months
B. dysfunction of the pelvic organs Answer: 1 - A, B. 2 - B.
253. Disease: Symptoms:
1. acute polyradiculoneuropathy A. peripheral tetraparesis
Guillain-Barré B. paresis in the distal parts of the extremity
2. alcoholic polyneuropathy
B. paresis of facial muscles
D. pain in the limbs
D. protein-cell dissociation in the cerebrospinal fluid
E. paresis in the proximal limbs
Answer: 1 - A, B, D, D, E. 2 - A, B, G.
254. Disease: Therapy:
1. herpetic polyradiculo- A. B vitamins
neuropathy B. plasmaferresis
2. acute polyradiculoneuro- B. anticholinesterase drugs
Guillain-Barré disease G. acyclovir, zoverax
Answer: 1 - A, D. 2 - A, B, C.
255. Disease: Symptoms:
1. trigeminal neuralgia A. “shooting” pain
2. neuropathy of the facial nerve B. Bell's symptom
B. presence of trigger zones
G. lagophthalmos
D. absence of the brow reflex Answer: 1 - A, C. 2 - B, D, D.
ADD:
256. A “claw-shaped” hand is characteristic of damage to the ____________ nerve.
Answer: elbow
257. A “dangling” hand is characteristic of damage to the ____________ nerve.
Answer: radial
258. “Monkey” hand is characteristic of damage to the _____________ nerve.
Answer: middle
259. The absence of the ulnar extension reflex is characteristic of damage to the ____________ nerve.
Answer: radial
260. The absence of a knee reflex is characteristic of damage to the ____________ nerve.
Answer: femoral.
TOPIC 10. Hereditary diseases of the nervous system.
CHOOSE ONE CORRECT ANSWER.
261. Type of inheritance of Wilson's disease:
1. autosomal dominant
2. autosomal recessive
4. dominantly linked to the X chromosome Answer: 2.
262. Type of inheritance of Huntington's chorea:
1. autosomal dominant
2. autosomal recessive
3. linked to the X chromosome recessively
4. dominantly linked to the X chromosome Answer: 1.
263. Type of inheritance of Duchenne myopathy:
1. autosomal dominant
2. autosomal recessive
3. linked to the X chromosome recessively
4. dominantly linked to the X chromosome Answer: 3.
264. To make a diagnosis of Wilson's disease, the following are decisive:
1. damage to the extrapyramidal system
2. copper metabolism disorder
3. liver damage Answer: 2.
265. The gene defect in Duchenne myopathy is a violation of the synthesis of:
1. dopamine
2. dystrophin protein
3. ceruloplasmin
4. copper transport ATPase
5. phenyl-alanine hydroxylase Answer: 2.
SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWERS:
266. Hereditary diseases of the nervous system include:
1. multiple sclerosis
2. torsion dystonia
3. myasthenia gravis
4. chorea minor
5. Huntington's chorea Answer: 2, 5.
267. Symptoms characteristic of Huntington’s chorea:
1. onset at the age of 20 -30 years
2. onset at the age of 30 - 50 years
3. autosomal dominant type of inheritance
4. autosomal recessive type of inheritance
5. development of dementia
6. the effect of therapy depends on the timing of the start of treatment Answer: 2, 3, 5.
268. Symptoms characteristic of Wilson's disease:
1. Kaiser-Fleischer rings
2. muscle atrophy
3. liver cirrhosis
4. hyperkinetic syndrome
5. optic disc atrophy
6. sensory disturbances
7. akinetic-rigid syndrome Answer: 1, 3, 4, 7.
269. Symptoms characteristic of Duchenne myopathy:
1. myocardial dystrophy
2. pseudohypertrophy of the leg muscles
3. atrophy of the muscles of the distal limbs
4. atrophy of the muscles of the proximal limbs
5. increased CPK content in urine
6. decrease in CPK content in urine
7. onset at the age of 2 - 5 years
8. beginning at the age of 10 -15 years Answer: 1, 2, 4, 5, 7.
270. Symptoms characteristic of Wilson's disease:
1. hypercupuria
2. decreased ceruloplasmin content
3. increased copper content in bile
4. decreased copper content in urine
5. Kaiser-Fleischer rings
6. increased ceruloplasmin content
7. decreased copper content in bile Answer: 1, 2, 5, 7.
MATCH:
271. Syndrome: Karyotype:
1. Klinefeltera A. 47, ХХУ
2. Shereshevsky-Turner B. 47, XX+21
3. Dauna V. 45, ХО
4. polysomy on the X chromosome G. 47, XXX
Answer: 1 - A 2 - B 3 - B 4 - D
272. Disease: Therapy:
1. Huntington's chorea A. d-penicillamine
2. Wilson's disease B. essentiale
B. haloperidol
D. zinc sulfate Answer: 1 - B 2 - A, B, D.
273. Disease: Type of mutation:
1. Huntington's chorea A. aneuploidy
2. Down's disease B. dynamic/expansion/
3. Fragile X chromosome syndrome B. polyploidy Answer: 1 - B 2 - A 3 - B
274. Disease: Therapy:
1. Parkinson's disease A. antelepsin
2. Spasmodic torticollis B. nakom
V. cyclodolus
G. relanium Answer: 1 - B, C 2 - A, D
275. Disease: Symptom:
1. Duchenne myopathy A. trembling hyperkinesis
2. torsion dystonia B. “duck walk”
3. Wilson's disease B. muscular dyskinesia
D. muscular atrophy Answer: 1 - B, D 2 - C 3- A
TOPIC 11. SYRINGOMYELIA.
SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWERS:
276. Syringomyelia is characterized by the following lesions:
1. ponytail
2. dorsal horns of the spinal cord
3. anterior roots of the spinal cord
4. medulla oblongata
5. subcortical nuclei Answer: 2, 4.
277. Syringomyelia is characterized by:
1. dysraphic status
2. painless burns
3. flaccid paresis of the limbs
4. epileptic seizures
5. pelvic disorders Answer: 1, 2, 3.
278. Differential diagnosis of syringomyelia is carried out with:
1.intramedullary tumor
2. extramedullary tumor
3. multiple sclerosis
4. cranio-vertebral anomaly
5. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis Answer: 1, 4.
279. In the treatment of syringomyelia the following is used:
1. X-ray therapy
3. anticholinesterase drugs
4. hemosorption
5. plasmaferresis Answer: 1, 2, 3.
280. To diagnose syringomyelia use:
1. biochemical blood tests
2. molecular diagnostic methods
5. karyotyping Answer: 3, 4.
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