Tests in otorhinolaryngology. Tests in otorhinolaryngology for students How the direction of nystagmus is determined

1. Anterior section The nasal septum is formed by cartilage:

QUADAGONAL CARTILAGE

2. The duct of the maxillary sinus opens into the nasal passage:

3. The maxillary (Maxillary) sinuses are finally developing:

4. Antibacterial drops are used for acute rhinitis:

5. In case of nosebleeds, the correct position of the head is:
-HEAD IN A FLIGHT POSITION OR SLIGHTLY TILT FORWARD

6. Sphenoiditis is inflammation of the sinus:
-WEDGE-shaped

7. With inflammation of the maxillary sinus, the characteristic localization of pain is:
- PAIN IN THE MAXIMUM SINUS AREA ON BOTH SIDES, NOSE ROOT, ORBITS, TEMPORAL REGION, IN THE BRAIN COMPARTMENT OF THE SKULL

8. A strip of pus in the middle meatus is a sign of:
- MAXILLARY SINUS (INFLECTION OF THE MAXILLARY SINUS)

9. A characteristic sign of sphenoiditis is:
-CONSTANT PAIN IN THE occipital part of the head, profuse discharge of pus and mucus from the nose, deterioration of the sense of smell. FEELING OF CONSTANT UNPLEASANT ODOR, GENERAL INTOXICATION

10. The mucous membrane of the pharynx is equipped with ciliated epithelium in the area:

Nasopharynx(upper part of the pharynx)

11. Foreign bodies in the nasal cavity are typical for children aged:
-UP TO 5-7 YEARS OLD

12. The main sinuses are located:
-IN THE BODY OF THE WEDGE-FOID BONE????

13. The most dangerous complication of a nasal boil is:
-LYMPHADENITIS(INDUCTION OF LYMPH VESSELS), THROMBOPHLEBITIS OF FACIAL VEINS, SEPSIS

14. The nature of discharge during the first stage of acute rhinitis

NO ALLOCATIONS

15. Inflammation of the frontal sinus is designated by the term:
-FRONTIT

16. It is contraindicated for a patient with hypertension to soak tampons during nosebleeds:

SOLUTION OF EPHEDRINE

17. Localization of pain during inflammation of the sphenoid sinus:
-HEADACHE IN THE AREA OF THE occipital OR DEPTH OF THE HEAD, headaches in the eye sockets. PARIETO-TEMPORAL REGION

18. The correct position of a patient with sinusitis when administering drops into the nose:
-

19. On the lateral wall of the nasal cavity there is a concha:
-

20. Open into the lower nasal passage:
-NASOLACRIMAL CHANNEL

21. The nature of discharge during the second stage of acute rhinitis:
-TRANSPARENT

22. The term “cacosmia” means:

UNPLEASANT SMELL

23. The most dangerous complication of a foreign body in the nasal cavity:
-NASAL BREATHING DIFFICULTY

24. The length of the turunda during anterior nasal tamponade in an adult should be:
-60-70 CM

25. Ozena is the form of:
-

26. Swelling of the upper eyelid is characteristic of sinus lesions:
-FRONTAL. GRID

27. The olfactory zone is located in the area:
-

28. Localization of pain in the back of the head is typical for:
-SPHENOIDITIS (Sphenoid SINUS)

29. For the diagnosis of chronic allergic rhinitis applies:
-

30. Trepanopuncture of the sinus is a method of treatment:
-FRONTITA

31. The Kisselbach zone is located:
-IN THE FRONT OF THE NASAL SEPTUM

32. Rhinogenic orbital complications of sinusitis include:
-

33. Finger examination nasopharynx is performed for diagnosis:
-ADENOIDS

34. The causative agent of ulcerative necrotic tonsillitis is:
- SPIROCHETES OF VINCENT, SPINDLE-SHAPED ROC

35. The discovery of a dirty-gray, difficult-to-remove coating on the tonsil is typical for:
-DIPHTHERIA

36. Wide opening of the abscess is a method of treatment:
-

37. Characteristic signs of paratonsillitis are:
-

38. Indications for washing tonsil lacunae are:

39. Adenoids are located in the following section of the pharynx:

40. The mouth of the auditory tube is located:

41. The third degree of enlargement of the adenoids is characterized by the closure of the vomer:

42. A characteristic sign of follicular tonsillitis is:

43. Antibiotics wide range actions are contraindicated during treatment:

44. The detection of white, loose plaque on the tonsils is typical for:

45. The indication for tonsillectomy is a previous disease:

46. Difficulty in nasal breathing, snoring at night are typical for:

47. Reverse development of lymphoid tissue in children occurs:

48. A characteristic sign of lacunar angina is:

49. Asymmetry of the pharynx is characteristic of:

50. The formation of bubbles on the mucous membrane of the soft palate is characteristic of:

51. Recurrent otitis is a characteristic complication:

52. The term “adenotomy” means:

53. Among the cartilages that form the larynx, the unpaired one is:

54. It borders on the membranous part of the trachea:

55. A characteristic sign of subglottic laryngitis is:

57. Inflammation of the larynx is designated by the term:

58. The most characteristic feature acute laryngitis is:

59. If you suspect foreign body The larynx requires the following emergency care:

60. The conical ligament is located between:

61. A characteristic sign of laryngeal diphtheria is:

62. If a foreign body of the esophagus is suspected, emergency care is performed:

63. When chemical burns esophagus requires emergency assistance in the form of lavage of the esophagus and stomach:

64. Indications for tracheotomy are:

65. Complications of a tracheal foreign body include:

66. A characteristic sign of subglottic laryngitis is:

67. An attack of subglottic laryngitis most often occurs at the age of:

68. Most dangerous complication esophageal injuries:

69. Sign of a foreign body in the esophagus:

70. Acute aphonia is a sign of:

71. The “pop” symptom is characteristic of:

72. The larynx in an adult is located at the level of:

73. The element of the middle ear is:

74. A healthy ear can hear spoken speech at a distance of no more than:

75. Positive symptom“tragus” in a child of the first year of life serves as a sign of:

76. When introducing drops into the ear, the temperature of the liquid should be:

77. Itching in the external auditory canal is a sign of:

78. A drug contraindicated for the treatment of otitis media is:

79. Labyrinthitis is an inflammation of:

80. BTE novocaine blockade is a method of treatment:

81. The otolithic apparatus is located:

82. Nystagmus is a sign of damage:

83. Eustachian tube connects tympanic cavity:

84. The semicircular canals are an element of:

85. A positive “tragus symptom” in an adult is characteristic of:

86. Deterioration of hearing after swimming is typical for:

87. To test vestibular function the following is used:

89. If blood leaks from the external auditory canal, it is recommended:

90. Protruding auricle, pain in the area behind the ear is a sign of:

91. A characteristic sign of labyrinthitis is:

92. Suppuration from the external auditory canal is typical for:

93. Central part auditory analyzer located:

94. The flow of clear fluid from the external auditory canal is a sign of injury:

95. Element inner ear is:

96. Peripheral part vestibular analyzer located:

97. Suppuration from the ear is a sign of:

98. Ear “stuffiness” after swimming is a sign of:

99. A characteristic sign of acute otitis media is:

100. A characteristic sign of labyrinthitis is:

101. Removal of a foreign body from the external auditory canal is carried out using:

102. Audiometry is a research method:

DERMATOVENEROLOGY

Primary morphological element:
Secondary morphological element:
Dark field microscopy is used to diagnose:
Keratolytic agent:
Between the epidermis and dermis is located:
Apocrine sweat glands are located in the area:
Sebaceous glands:
There are no sebaceous glands
Erosion is formed within:
The epidermis includes:
Skin appendages include:
Sweat glands have:
Ingredients of the cream:
The ratio of powder and fat-like substance in pastes:
Streptococcus causes:
Antibiotics are prescribed when the boil is localized:
Dermatophytoses include:
With massive preventive examinations to detect microsporia use:
The emergency notice is filled out:
Muff-like covers on the hair are present when:
Herpes simplex is characterized by:
Skeletal system for tertiary syphilis:
A set of instruments for instillation into the urethra in men:
Tactics of a health worker when identifying erosive and ulcerative rashes on the genitals
Herpes zoster is characterized by damage
Tertiary syphilis manifests itself as:
Your actions when identifying scabies in a team:
Sycosis is usually localized on the skin:
The skin has no function
Inflammatory spots include
The most common sites of localization for scabies in adults
Children with disabilities should be isolated from children's institutions. skin disease
Priority problem for scabies
The causative agent of scabies
A serious complication of urticaria
For etiotropic treatment of scabies it is used
The main route of infection with syphilis
Syphilis in Latin
Potential physiological problem in a patient with gonorrhea
The causative agent of gonorrhea
Basic drugs for the treatment of gonorrhea

OPHTHALMOLOGY

1. Yourself thin wall orbit is:

2. Channel optic nerve serves to pass:

3. Eye development begins at:

4. Fluid outflow from the anterior chamber occurs through:

5. Vitreous body performs all functions:

6. The main function of the visual analyzer, without which all its other visual functions cannot develop, is:

7. For the first time, a table for determining visual acuity was compiled by:

8. If a person distinguishes from a distance of 1 meter only the first line of the table for determining visual acuity, then his visual acuity is equal to:

9. There is no light perception in a patient with:

10. In an adult intraocular pressure normally should not exceed:

11. The bactericidal effect of tears is ensured by the presence in it of:

12. The refractive power of an optical lens with focal length V:

13. Changes in the eyelids due to inflammatory edema include:

14. Clinical signs erysipelas century include:

15. Scaly blepharitis is characterized by:

16. With adenoviral infection of the eye, the following is observed:

17. With orbital phlegmon the following is observed:

18. To the primary benign tumors orbits include:

19. Indications for enucleation are:

20. The main symptom of eyelid emphysema:

21. With allergic dermatitis the following is observed:

22. Traumatic swelling of the eyelids is accompanied by:

23. Indications for opening an eyelid abscess are:

24. When the skin of the eyelids is affected by herpes simplex, the following is observed:

25. Miotics are prescribed for:

26. Local anesthetics are used for:

27. Vasodilators are prescribed for:

28. Absorbable agents are prescribed for:

29. Indications for the use of cauterizing and astringent agents are:

30. Visual acuity equal to

PHTHISIATRICS

The causative agent of tuberculosis is
In organs and tissues during tuberculosis it is formed
The most common route of transmission of tuberculosis
Early symptoms tuberculosis
In tuberculosis, sputum can be found
Diet for tuberculosis involves
Method for early diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis
Specific prevention tuberculosis
The BCG vaccine is
BCG vaccination is carried out
BCG vaccine is administered
Diaskin test is used for
Complication from pulmonary tuberculosis
Phases of the tuberculosis process accompanied by massive bacterial excretion
The development of tuberculosis is most facilitated by
The primary tuberculosis complex is formed the following elements
People suffer from primary tuberculosis
Primary tuberculosis intoxication is characterized by fever
Physiological problems in primary tuberculosis include
The Diaskin test is carried out with the aim of
Diaskin test is administered
A Diaskin test is done if previous reactions are negative.
The most common tuberculosis of the respiratory system
Secondary tuberculosis develops
Fluorographic examination matters
Symptoms of secondary pulmonary tuberculosis
Social and everyday problems with tuberculosis
Physiological problems in secondary tuberculosis
Reliable sign pulmonary hemorrhage
Dietary recommendations for a patient with tuberculosis
Type of mycobacteria that most often causes disease in humans
The main source of tuberculosis infection is
Transmission factors for food tract spread of tuberculosis
A characteristic complaint for various forms of tuberculosis
Methods for early diagnosis of tuberculosis
Specific drug for the prevention of tuberculosis
Medicines for the treatment of tuberculosis
Concentration of chloramine solution for sputum disinfection in pocket spittoons
A diet is recommended for patients with tuberculosis
For the purpose of chemoprophylaxis of tuberculosis, contact persons are prescribed
To prevent the neurotoxic effects of isoniazid, use
The Diaskin test is assessed through
To disinfect the sputum of a patient with pulmonary tuberculosis, use
Side effect rifampicin
Concentration of chloramine solution for disinfection of medical instruments for tuberculosis
BCG vaccination develops immunity
Immunity formed by hardening
All balneological procedures are recommended for patients with tuberculosis, except
Work is contraindicated for patients with tuberculosis
The risk group for tuberculosis includes:
The most common site of extrapulmonary tuberculosis
Dose of Diaskin test for mass examination
Treatment of underwear of a patient with tuberculosis
Interval between BCG vaccination and any other preventive vaccination amounts to at least
A disease that contributes to the development of tuberculosis
Dependent nursing intervention for pulmonary hemorrhage
Tactics of a nurse when a patient develops scarlet foamy blood when coughing outside a medical facility
A reliable method for diagnosing respiratory tuberculosis is detection in sputum
Side effects of streptomycin
Potential patient problem with pulmonary tuberculosis
Features of tuberculosis at the present stage
Resorts for the treatment of tuberculosis patients
Housing conditions in the focus of tuberculosis are assessed as satisfactory if the patient lives
The drainage position is given to the patient in order to
When releasing a large amount purulent sputum recommended in the patient's diet
X-ray examination bronchi using contrast agent
With long-term use of antibiotics, the patient may develop
Pulmonary hemorrhage is characterized by sputum
A disease that can be complicated by pleurisy
The main symptom of dry pleurisy
Increased airiness of the lungs is
The main symptom of emphysema
Anatomical area of BCG vaccine administration

GERIATRICS

Age-related changes in the respiratory system
Age-related changes upper respiratory tract
Rib cage in old age
Radiography of the bronchi in geriatric patients should be performed when they appear against the background of chronic bronchitis.
Most common complication acute bronchitis in geriatric patients
Predisposes to the development of chronic bronchitis in the elderly
For exacerbation of chronic bronchitis, geriatric patients are recommended
When pneumonia occurs in geriatric patients, it is rarely observed
To the development of pneumonia in elderly and old age predisposes
The main complaint of an elderly patient with obstructive bronchitis
Most common reason hemoptysis in geriatric patients
Emergency care for pulmonary hemorrhage
The expiratory nature of shortness of breath in old age is typical for
During an attack of bronchial asthma, it is contraindicated in geriatric patients.
Emergency care for an attack of bronchial asthma
Elderly patients with bronchial asthma consultation needed
The main complaint of an elderly patient with emphysema
After acute pneumonia dispensary observation carried out during
Frequency of dispensary examinations during chronic bronchitis during a year
The drainage function of the bronchi decreases with age as a result of
Exacerbation of chronic bronchitis in geriatric patients is accompanied by
The main cause of pneumonia in geriatric patients
The nature of sputum in chronic bronchitis
Characteristic sign lung cancer in sputum examination
For the treatment of chronic pulmonary heart used in geriatrics
Potential problem with pneumonia in geriatric patients
Independent nursing intervention for pulmonary hemorrhage
Rehabilitation for chronic bronchitis in the elderly involves
Acute respiratory failure accompanied by
All types of aging include:
Biological age
Elderly people are the following age group
Centenarians include people aged
Geriatrics is a science that studies
Recommended ratio of proteins, fats and carbohydrates for elderly and senile people
For prevention early aging diet should be limited
Mandatory equipment for the gerontology department
Anatomical and physiological features of the respiratory system in elderly and senile people
Anatomical and physiological features of the musculoskeletal system in elderly and senile people
Anatomical and physiological changes digestive system in elderly and senile people
One of the provisions of geriatric pharmacology
Elderly patients are prescribed medications based on
Typical physiological problem of elderly and senile people
Typical psychosocial problem of elderly and senile people
When caring for a geriatric patient, the nurse must first provide
Physical activity causes in older people
The aging process is accompanied
In case of prolonged bed rest, it is necessary to carry out
Gerontophobia is
To risk factors premature aging relate
According to WHO classification, population groups with high risk deterioration of health include
Leading need in old age
The presence of two or more diseases in a patient is
Age-related changes of cardio-vascular system
Weight of an old man's heart
In old age arteries
What rhythm is characteristic of the physiological type of aging?
The blood pressure level in atherosclerotic hypertension is characterized by
The leading cause of arterial hypertension in elderly and senile people
Hypertensive crisis begins in old people
Against the background of a hypertensive crisis, insufficiency often develops in elderly and senile people.
Therapy of hypertensive crisis in elderly people begins with the administration of the drug
For hypertensive crisis in elderly and senile people, it is used
An attack of angina in the elderly is caused by
An attack of angina in the elderly is characterized by
To relieve an attack of angina, it is advisable to use
Used to treat angina in old age
Anti-sclerotic nutrition for the elderly involves the use of
Doses medicines, used for treatment of ischemic heart disease the elderly should have
The reason for the decrease in pain intensity during myocardial infarction in elderly and senile people
A form of myocardial infarction that is less common in old age
Administration of morphine hydrochloride in the elderly is not advisable because
The initial signs of heart failure in the elderly are
Used to treat heart failure in the elderly
Signs of glycoside intoxication in the elderly
It is advisable to prescribe cardiac glycosides in the elderly
Glycoside intoxication in the elderly is facilitated by
Changes in the intestinal microflora lead to
In old age, what happens in the stomach:
How many times a day should older people eat:
The intervals between meals in the elderly should be:
Ulcerative defect in geriatric patients is more often localized in:
In the occurrence of peptic ulcer in the elderly highest value It has:
"Senile" ulcers are characterized by:
Contraindications to the use of anticholinergics are:
The patient is 73 years old. He is in the hospital for a stomach ulcer. Constantly complains of heartburn. Considering this, what antacid should be prescribed:
Physiotherapy for peptic ulcers in old age:
Chronic cholecystitis manifests itself
Stomach cancer manifests itself
Chronic persistent hepatitis manifests itself
Spa treatment for geriatric patients should be carried out at resorts:
Constipation in older people is often caused by:
The fiber that older people need is found in:
In geriatric patients, it is better to use antacids:
Glaucoma is a contraindication for the use of:
With hepatic colic in old age, the pain is localized in:
Emergency care for hepatic colic in geriatric patients:
To suppress pancreatic secretion you can use:
Possible complications pancreatitis:
Age-related changes during aging
Urinary retention in elderly and senile people is usually associated with
Disorders of urodynamics in the elderly and the elderly contribute to
The priority problem for prostate adenoma in elderly and senile people
With prostate adenoma, the likelihood of developing
Priority action of the nurse for urinary incontinence in elderly and senile people
Urinary stones consisting primarily of oxalic acid salts are called
Urates are called urinary stones, consisting mainly of salts
Which option to start urolithiasis more common in geriatric patients
Dairy products (except for a limited number of fermented milk products) should be excluded from the diet; meat, fish, and vegetable oils should be recommended to a patient whose urinary stones consist of
Tea, chocolate, rhubarb, spinach, gooseberries should be excluded from the diet, the consumption of tomatoes and potatoes should be limited, dairy products and black bread should be recommended if urinary stones consist of
Meat products, fish, alcohol should be excluded from food, dairy products, vegetables and fruits should be recommended to a patient whose urinary stones consist of
During an attack renal colic There are a number of procedures that can be performed on an elderly patient, except
Features of the onset of acute pyelonephritis in elderly and senile age
What changes in urine most indicate acute pyelonephritis in old age
Symptomatic hypertension is more common in
The most common causative agents of pyelonephritis in the elderly and senile age
Predisposing factors for the occurrence of pyelonephritis in old age may be
Complications of exacerbation of chronic pyelonephritis in old age are
Clinically chronic pyelonephritis manifests itself in old and senile age
Diabetes mellitus in geriatric patients is caused by:
The course of diabetes mellitus in elderly and senile people is aggravated by:
Obese people develop diabetes:
Which symptom of obesity in old age is more serious in prognostic terms:
A 62-year-old man has a height of 174 cm and a body weight of 80 kg:
For obesity, the following diet is prescribed:
Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (type I diabetes) most often develops:
Non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (type II diabetes) often develops:
At diabetes mellitus in old age a disorder develops:
Diet therapy is prescribed:
The main criterion for the effectiveness of diet therapy for diabetes mellitus in old age is:
Patients with diabetes mellitus are prescribed:
For hypoglycemic coma in elderly and elderly people skin:
In case of hyperglycemic coma in elderly and old people, the skin:
During hypoglycemic coma, the following odor is noted in the exhaled air:
With hyperglycemic coma, the following odor is noted in the exhaled air:
For the treatment of type II diabetes mellitus, the following is used:
For diabetes mellitus, the following diet is prescribed:
Emergency care for hypoglycemic conditions in old age:
With diffuse toxic goiter the following is observed:
Damage to the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints is observed with
Morning stiffness of joints in old age is observed with
Deformation of the hand of the “walrus fin” type is observed when
In rheumatoid arthritis in old age, the most typical blood test is
Important in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis has
Used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis
For deforming osteoarthritis pain syndrome Connected with
Joint pain with deforming osteoarthritis in old age is observed
In deforming osteoarthritis, the first areas affected are
Used in the treatment of deforming osteoarthritis
Side effects when prescribing NSAIDs
Lead to the development of osteoporosis in old age
Main clinical manifestations of osteoporosis
Main source of vitamin D for osteoporosis
Used to treat osteoporosis
Weakness, fainting, perversion of taste and smell in old age are observed with anemia:
In the clinical picture iron deficiency anemia in the elderly it predominates:
Iron deficiency anemia in the elderly color index:
The most iron is found in:
When treating iron deficiency anemia, iron supplements in old age should begin to be administered:
Reason for reduced effectiveness of oral iron supplements in geriatric patients:
It is better to take iron supplements with:
Iron preparation for parenteral use:
When treating iron deficiency anemia in old age, the following is used:
The effectiveness of treatment with iron supplements is indicated by the appearance in the blood of:
At 12, deficiency anemia develops when:
Clinic of B 12 deficiency anemia:
B12 deficiency anemia by color index:
When treating B12-deficiency anemia in old age, the following is used:
The main reason acute leukemia in geriatric patients:
Sternal puncture in geriatric patients it is carried out when diagnosing:
With leukemia, the following syndromes are observed:
A leukemic “failure” in a blood test in geriatric patients is observed when:
With chronic lymphocytic leukemia there is an increase in:
When treating leukemia in old age, the following is used:
Clinical picture Erythremia in geriatric patients consists of the following syndromes:

OBSTETRICS

1. The internal genital organs include:

2. The menstrual cycle is:

3. Timely birth is birth at term:

4. One of the main symptoms of late gestosis is:

5. The priority problem for a pregnant woman with preeclampsia is:

6. The priority problem of a pregnant woman with a miscarriage is:

8. Physiological duration of pregnancy:

9. Deadline for issuing prenatal leave:

10. Duration of prenatal and postnatal leave (in the absence of complications):

11. Possible signs of pregnancy include:

12. With Snegirev's symptom the following is observed:

13. Bulging of the angle of the uterus, detected during vaginal bimanual examination, is called:

14. With the Horwitz-Hegar symptom, the following occurs:

15. Hospitalization in the observation department of a maternity hospital is indicated if a woman in labor has:

16. The deepest vault of the vagina is:

17. Non-sterile gloves can be used in the maternity hospital:

18. According to indications, the pregnant woman is examined by:

19. In a physiologically progressing pregnancy, the pregnant woman visits a dentist:

20. The fusion of sex cells between a man and a woman is called:

21. Most often, an ectopic pregnancy develops in:

22. The thickness of the pelvic bones is determined using:

23. The vertical dimension of the Michaelis rhombus is equal to the size

24. Termination of pregnancy at the request of the woman is carried out at:

25. For bicornuate and saddle uterus:

26. The relationship of the fetal limbs and head to its body is called:

27. Before applying the Rogovin brace, the umbilical cord is processed:

28. The filling of shared rooms in the postpartum department occurs:

29. The distance between the upper edge of the pubic symphysis and the upper angle of the Michaelis rhombus is called:

30. The normal vaginal environment is:

31. Obstetric hospitals with wards intensive care for women and for newborns belong to hospitals:

32. Symptoms of cervical cancer early stages:

33. Cytological examination for atypical cells is carried out for:

34. Hysterosalpingography is performed for the following purposes:

35. Before performing an ultrasound examination of the pelvic organs:

36. Before performing a bimanual vaginal examination, you must:

37. Before performing laparoscopic surgery on the pelvic organs:

38. Inflammation of the large gland of the vaginal vestibule is called:

39. The nature of discharge during candidiasis:

40. Women after childbirth that occurred outside a medical institution are hospitalized in:

41. The uterus takes on an hourglass shape:

42. The triad of symptoms of late gestosis (OPG-gestosis) includes:

43. The relationship of the large part of the fetus to the entrance to the pelvis is called:

44. The principles of organizing obstetric and gynecological care are determined by order of the Russian Ministry of Health:

45. Organizational issues infection safety obstetric hospital are defined as follows normative document

46. He was the first to propose the use of methods for the prevention of nosocomial infections in obstetrics:

47. Medical staff of maternity hospitals must undergo fluorographic examination:

48. For processing surgical field and external genitalia of a woman in labor before delivery can be applied:

49. Upon admission to gynecological department maternity hospital patient:

50. Cohabitation of a postpartum mother with a child:

51. In the postpartum physiological department, bed linen for postpartum women is changed:

52. To prevent gonoblennorrhea in a newborn, the following is used:

53. A diagnostic pregnancy test (urinalysis) is based on determining:

54. Lengthening the outer segment of the umbilical cord by 8-10 cm is called a sign of separation of the placenta:

55. A pregnant woman with a narrow pelvis should be hospitalized in maternity hospital:

56. The second stage of labor is called the period:

57. In the postpartum department, the guard nurse:

58. If there are positive signs of placenta separation and physiological blood loss, you must:

59. The first degree of vaginal cleanliness is characterized by:

60. External os nulliparous woman has the form:

61. The distance between the lower edge of the symphysis and the most prominent point of the promontory, measured at vaginal examination, is called a conjugate:

62. Distance between the most distant points of the skewers femur called:

63. To determine the estimated fetal weight using the Jordania method, you must:

64. When the fetus is in cephalic presentation, the heartbeat can be heard:

65. The ratio of the longitudinal axis of the fetal body to the longitudinal axis of the mother's body is called:

66. After a normal birth, the parturient woman is monitored in maternity ward:

67. The set of movements that the fetus makes as it passes through the pelvis and birth canal is called:

68. It is most rational to cross the umbilical cord during uncomplicated childbirth:

69. Putting a baby to the mother's breast in the absence of complications is rational:

70. For light form Early gestosis in pregnant women is characterized by:

71. Nausea is a sign of pregnancy:

72. Progesterone during pregnancy, in addition to the ovaries, is also produced by:

73. Risk of Rh conflict between mother and fetus:

74. A woman’s blood is monitored for Rh antibodies if there is a risk of Rh conflict:

75. Next clinical stage miscarriage after threatening:

76. At complete break uterus:

77. The presence of a patient's history of two or more consecutive spontaneous miscarriages (abortions) is called:

78. If the size of the fetal head does not correspond to the size of the mother’s pelvis, the diagnosis is made:

79. The fetal heartbeat in the second stage of labor is listened to:

80. Main functions of the placenta:

81. Abdominal circumference in pregnant women is measured:

82. With the help of the third external obstetric examination according to Leopold, the following is determined:

83. Primiparous and multiparous women begin to feel fetal movement according to:

84. Contractions are muscle contractions.

Anatomy of the nose

001. Joana is:

a) posterior sections of the upper nasal meatus

b) opening from the nasal cavity to the nasopharynx

c) posterior parts of the lower nasal meatus

d) posterior sections of the common nasal meatus

Correct answer: b

002.The outflow of blood from the external nose occurs in:

a) ophthalmic vein

b) anterior facial vein

c) thyroid vein

d) lingual vein

Correct answer: b

003. Glabella is:

a) a point above the anterior nasal axis

b) zone of transition of the root of the nose to the level of the eyebrows

c) area of the back of the nose

d) area of the anterior protruding part of the chin

Correct answer: b

004. The vomer is part of the wall of the nasal cavity:

a) top

b) bottom

c) lateral

d) medial

Correct answer: g

005. Thickness of the perforated plate ethmoid bone:

b) 2 – 3 mm

c) 4 – 5 mm

d) 5 – 6 mm

Correct answer: b

006. The turbinates are located on the wall of the nasal cavity:

a) top

b) bottom

c) lateral

d) medial

Correct answer: in

007. The composition of the outer wall of the nasal cavity includes:

a) nasal bone

b) frontal, parietal bones

c) main bone

d) palatine bone

Correct answer: a

008. The upper wall of the nasal cavity does not include:

A) frontal bone

b) palatine bone

c) nasal bone

d) main bone

Correct answer: b

009. In the nasal cavity there are turbinates:

a) top, bottom, middle

b) upper, lower, lateral

c) only upper, lower

d) medial, lateral

Correct answer: a

010. With anterior rhinoscopy you can more often examine:

a) only the inferior turbinate

b) only the middle turbinate

c) superior nasal concha

d) inferior and middle turbinates

Correct answer: g

011. The vestigial Jacobson's organ in the nasal cavity is located:

a) on the bottom wall

b) on the nasal septum

c) in the middle turbinate

d) in the middle meatus

Correct answer: b

012. The newborn has:

a) two nasal turbinates

b) three nasal turbinates

c) four nasal turbinates

d) five turbinates

Correct answer: in

013. The nasolacrimal duct opens:

a) in the upper nasal passage

b) middle nasal meatus

c) lower nasal passage

d) common nasal passage

Correct answer: in

014. The middle meatus opens:

a) all paranasal sinuses

b) nasolacrimal duct

c) anterior sinuses

d) posterior cells of the ethmoidal labyrinth

Correct answer: in

015. Open into the upper nasal passage:

A) frontal sinus

b) posterior ethmoid cells, main sinus

c) all cells of the ethmoid labyrinth

d) nasolacrimal duct

Correct answer: b

016. Kisselbach's area in the nasal cavity is located:

a) in the anterior inferior part of the nasal septum

b) in upper section nasal septum

c) in the mucous membrane of the inferior nasal concha

d) in the mucous membrane of the middle turbinate

Correct answer: a

017. The lower nasal passage opens:

a) maxillary sinus

b) frontal sinus

c) posterior cells of the ethmoidal labyrinth

d) nasolacrimal duct

Correct answer: g

018. The main role in warming the air in the nasal cavity is played by:

A) bone

b) cartilage tissue

c) cavernous tissue

d) mucous glands

Correct answer: in

019. A feature of the structure of the nasal mucosa is:

a) the presence of goblet cells

b) the presence of mucous glands

c) the presence of cavernous plexuses in the submucosal layer

d) the presence of ciliated epithelium

Correct answer: in

020. Upper resonators do not include:

a) nose and sinuses

b) pharynx and vestibule of the larynx

c) subglottic space of the larynx

d) cranial cavity

Correct answer: in

021. Molecules of odorous substances are called:

a) opsonins

b) odorivectors

c) endoporphyrins

d) otoconia

Correct answer: b

022. Diaphanoscopy is:

a) identifying areas different temperatures

b) x-ray method research

c) transillumination of the nasal sinuses with an electric light bulb

G) ultrasonography

Correct answer: in

023. The main functions of the nose do not include:

a) respiratory

b) taste

c) olfactory

d) protective

Correct answer: b

024. Nasal breathing in newborns is mainly carried out through:

a) upper nasal passage

b) middle nasal meatus

c) lower nasal passage

d) common nasal passage

Correct answer: g

025. The main flow of inhaled air in the nasal cavity passes through the nasal passage:

a) top

b) average

c) lower

Correct answer: g

026. Parosmia is:

a) decreased sense of smell

b) lack of smell

c) perverted sense of smell

d) olfactory hallucinations

Correct answer: in

027. Kakosmia is:

a) decreased sense of smell

b) lack of smell

c) perverted sense of smell

d) feeling of a bad odor

Correct answer: g

028. Nose and it paranasal sinuses supply blood:

a) system of external and internal carotid arteries

b) system vertebral artery

c) lingual artery system

d) superior thyroid artery

Correct answer: a

029. Lymph from the anterior parts of the nasal cavity is drained to the lymph nodes:

a) in the retropharyngeal lymph nodes

b) into the submandibular lymph nodes

c) to the anterior cervical lymph nodes

d) into the deep cervical lymph nodes

Correct answer: b

030. Motor innervation of the nasal muscles is carried out:

a) lingual nerve

b) trigeminal nerve

c) facial nerve

G) vagus nerve

Correct answer: in

031. To the bottom respiratory tract relate:

a) larynx

c) paranasal sinuses

d) bronchi

Correct answer: g

032. The transport function in the nasal cavity is performed by the epithelium:

a) olfactory

b) multilayer flat

c) cubic

d) flickering

Correct answer: g

033. Nerve fibers pass through the perforated plate of the ethmoid bone:

a) wandering

b) olfactory

c) 1st branch of the trigeminal

d) 2 branches of the trigeminal

Correct answer: b

034. In humans, olfactory sensitivity increases with:

a) traumatic brain injury

b) tumors of the frontal lobe of the brain

c) epidural hematoma

d) Addison's disease

Correct answer: g

035. The ostiomeatal complex does not include:

a) anterior end of the middle turbinate

b) nasal septum

c) uncinate process and semilunar fissure

d) ethmoid bladder

Correct answer: b

036. The main function of the nasal septum:

a) resonator

b) protective

c) division of the nasal cavity into two halves

d) olfactory

Correct answer: in

037. The most active mucociliary transport in the mucous membrane of the nasal cavity occurs on:

a) superior nasal concha

b) middle turbinate

c) inferior nasal concha

d) nasal septum

Correct answer: in

038. In the proper layer of the inferior turbinates there are:

a) arterial plexuses

b) cavernous venous plexuses

c) vascular capillary formations

d) mixed choroid plexuses

Correct answer: b

039. The cavernous venous plexus in the nasal cavity performs the function of:

a) respiratory

b) heater

c) transport

d) resonator

Correct answer: b

Related information.

001. Joana is:

a) posterior sections of the upper nasal meatus

b) opening from the nasal cavity to the nasopharynx

c) posterior parts of the lower nasal meatus

d) posterior sections of the common nasal meatus

Correct answer: b

002.The outflow of blood from the external nose occurs in:

a) ophthalmic vein

b) anterior facial vein

c) thyroid vein

d) lingual vein

Correct answer: b

003. Glabella is:

a) a point above the anterior nasal axis

b) zone of transition of the root of the nose to the level of the eyebrows

c) area of the back of the nose

d) area of the anterior protruding part of the chin

Correct answer: b

004. The vomer is part of the wall of the nasal cavity:

a) top

b) bottom

c) lateral

d) medial

Correct answer: g

005. Thickness of the perforated plate of the ethmoid bone:

b) 2 – 3 mm

c) 4 – 5 mm

d) 5 – 6 mm

Correct answer: b

006. The turbinates are located on the wall of the nasal cavity:

a) top

b) bottom

c) lateral

d) medial

Correct answer: in

007. The composition of the outer wall of the nasal cavity includes:

a) nasal bone

b) frontal, parietal bones

c) main bone

d) palatine bone

Correct answer: a

008. The upper wall of the nasal cavity does not include:

a) frontal bone

b) palatine bone

c) nasal bone

d) main bone

Correct answer: b

009. In the nasal cavity there are turbinates:

a) top, bottom, middle

b) upper, lower, lateral

c) only upper, lower

d) medial, lateral

Correct answer: a

010. With anterior rhinoscopy you can more often examine:

a) only the inferior turbinate

b) only the middle turbinate

c) superior nasal concha

d) inferior and middle turbinates

Correct answer: g

011. The vestigial Jacobson's organ in the nasal cavity is located:

a) on the bottom wall

b) on the nasal septum

c) in the middle turbinate

d) in the middle meatus

Correct answer: b

012. The newborn has:

a) two nasal turbinates

b) three nasal turbinates

c) four nasal turbinates

d) five turbinates

Correct answer: in

013. The nasolacrimal duct opens:

a) in the upper nasal passage

b) middle nasal meatus

c) lower nasal passage

d) common nasal passage

Correct answer: in

014. The middle meatus opens:

a) all paranasal sinuses

b) nasolacrimal duct

c) anterior sinuses

d) posterior cells of the ethmoidal labyrinth

Correct answer: in

015. Open into the upper nasal passage:

a) frontal sinus

b) posterior ethmoid cells, main sinus

c) all cells of the ethmoid labyrinth

d) nasolacrimal duct

Correct answer: b

016. Kisselbach's area in the nasal cavity is located:

a) in the anterior inferior part of the nasal septum

b) in the upper part of the nasal septum

c) in the mucous membrane of the inferior nasal concha

d) in the mucous membrane of the middle turbinate

Correct answer: a

017. The lower nasal passage opens:

a) maxillary sinus

b) frontal sinus

c) posterior cells of the ethmoidal labyrinth

d) nasolacrimal duct

Correct answer: g

018. The main role in warming the air in the nasal cavity is played by:

a) bone tissue

b) cartilage tissue

c) cavernous tissue

d) mucous glands

Correct answer: in

019. A feature of the structure of the nasal mucosa is:

a) the presence of goblet cells

b) the presence of mucous glands

c) the presence of cavernous plexuses in the submucosal layer

d) the presence of ciliated epithelium

Correct answer: in

020. Upper resonators do not include:

a) nose and sinuses

b) pharynx and vestibule of the larynx

c) subglottic space of the larynx

d) cranial cavity

Correct answer: in

021. Molecules of odorous substances are called:

a) opsonins

b) odorivectors

c) endoporphyrins

d) otoconia

Correct answer: b

022. Diaphanoscopy is:

a) identifying areas of different temperatures

b) X-ray method of examination

c) transillumination of the nasal sinuses with an electric light bulb

d) ultrasound examination

Correct answer: in

023. The main functions of the nose do not include:

a) respiratory

b) taste

c) olfactory

d) protective

Correct answer: b

024. Nasal breathing in newborns is mainly carried out through:

a) upper nasal passage

b) middle nasal meatus

c) lower nasal passage

d) common nasal passage

Correct answer: g

025. The main flow of inhaled air in the nasal cavity passes through the nasal passage:

a) top

b) average

c) lower

Correct answer: g

026. Parosmia is:

a) decreased sense of smell

b) lack of smell

c) perverted sense of smell

d) olfactory hallucinations

Correct answer: in

027. Kakosmia is:

a) decreased sense of smell

b) lack of smell

c) perverted sense of smell

d) feeling of a bad odor

Correct answer: g

028. The nose and its paranasal sinuses supply blood to:

a) system of external and internal carotid arteries

b) vertebral artery system

c) lingual artery system

d) superior thyroid artery

Correct answer: a

029. Lymph from the anterior parts of the nasal cavity is drained to the lymph nodes:

a) in the retropharyngeal lymph nodes

b) into the submandibular lymph nodes

c) to the anterior cervical lymph nodes

d) into the deep cervical lymph nodes

Correct answer: b

030. Motor innervation of the nasal muscles is carried out:

a) lingual nerve

b) trigeminal nerve

c) facial nerve

d) vagus nerve

Correct answer: in

031. The lower respiratory tract includes:

a) larynx

c) paranasal sinuses

d) bronchi

Correct answer: g

032. The transport function in the nasal cavity is performed by the epithelium:

a) olfactory

b) multilayer flat

c) cubic

d) flickering

Correct answer: g

033. Nerve fibers pass through the perforated plate of the ethmoid bone:

a) wandering

b) olfactory

c) 1st branch of the trigeminal

d) 2 branches of the trigeminal

Correct answer: b

034. In humans, olfactory sensitivity increases with:

a) traumatic brain injury

b) tumors of the frontal lobe of the brain

c) epidural hematoma

d) Addison's disease

Correct answer: g

035. The ostiomeatal complex does not include:

a) anterior end of the middle turbinate

b) nasal septum

c) uncinate process and semilunar fissure

d) ethmoid bladder

Correct answer: b

036. The main function of the nasal septum:

a) resonator

b) protective

c) division of the nasal cavity into two halves

d) olfactory

Correct answer: in

037. The most active mucociliary transport in the mucous membrane of the nasal cavity occurs on:

a) superior nasal concha

b) middle turbinate

c) inferior nasal concha

d) nasal septum

Correct answer: in

038. In the proper layer of the inferior turbinates there are:

a) arterial plexuses

b) cavernous venous plexuses

c) vascular capillary formations

d) mixed choroid plexuses

Correct answer: b

039. The cavernous venous plexus in the nasal cavity performs the function of:

a) respiratory

b) heater

c) transport

1.

The following symptoms are characteristic of acute rhinitis:

A Mucus discharge from the nasal passages
B Difficulty in nasal breathing
IN Significant decrease in sense of smell
G Temperature rise to 39-400C
D Cough

2.

When treating acute rhinitis, it is recommended to use:

A Vasoconstrictor drops into the nasal passages
B Antibiotic therapy
IN Physiotherapeutic treatment
G Sunoref ointment for nasal passages

3.

To treat hay fever use:

A Antihistamines
B Hormonal drugs
IN Drugs that block the release of histamine by mast cells (intal)
G Antibiotics
D Sulfonamide drugs

4.

Predisposing factors to the occurrence of acute sinusitis are:

A Presence of infection in the nasal passages
B Violation of the drainage and ventilation function of the natural anastomosis of the paranasal sinuses
IN Reducing the body's overall resistance

5.

During treatment acute pharyngitis apply:

A Gargling with infusions and decoctions of herbs
B Alkaline gargling
IN Irrigation (pulverization) of the pharynx with ingalipt or similar preparations
G General antibiotic therapy
D General hormonal therapy
E UHF throats

6.

Symptoms of hay fever include:

A Abundant watery discharge from the nasal passages
B Frequent, repeated sneezing
IN Concomitant allergic conjunctivitis
G Purulent discharge from the nasal passages
D Temperature increase 38-400C

7.

Specify local signs chronic tonsillitis:

A Hyperemia and roller-like thickening of the free edge of the palatine arches
B Scar adhesions between the arches and palatine tonsils
IN Regional lymphadenitis
G Availability caseous-purulent plugs and liquid pus in the lacunae of the palatine tonsils
D Loose or scarred tonsils

8.

The patient complains of persistent hoarseness for many months. He often suffers from colds, which are accompanied by impaired vocal function. He has been smoking for many years. Objectively: laryngoscopy reveals thickening of the mucous membrane of the true vocal folds, persistent intense hyperemia, lumps of mucus; vocal fold mobility is preserved. Presumable diagnosis:

A Chronic hypertrophic laryngitis
B Chronic catarrhal laryngitis
IN Chronic atrophic laryngitis
G Keratosis of the larynx
D Leukoplakia of the larynx

9.

A 5-year-old child was taken to the doctor because three days ago, while playing, he pushed a pea into ear canal. Complains of a feeling of pressure in the ear, decreased hearing. Objectively: the skin of the auricle is not changed; a foreign body with a smooth surface is found in the external auditory canal, obstructing the external auditory canal.
Doctor's tactics:

A Apply alcohol and remove the foreign body with a hook
B Wash with the solution from the Janet syringe
IN Remove foreign body with tweezers
G Remove with loop
D Remove crochet

10.

List the signs of the decompensated form of chronic tonsillitis:

A Frequent sore throats (more than twice a year)
B History of peritonsillar abscesses
IN Autoimmune diseases(glomerulonephritis, rheumatism)
G Tonsillocardiac syndrome
D Chronic tonsillogenic intoxication
E Diabetes
AND Chronic colitis

11.

Symptoms of a perotonsillar abscess include:

A Temperature increase to 38-400C
B Difficulty opening the mouth
IN Sore throat predominantly on the affected side
G Significant infiltration of peritonsillar tissue and hyperemia of the mucous membrane on the affected side
D Increase submandibular lymph nodes predominantly on the affected side
E Cough
AND Runny nose

Right answers:

1. A B C
2. A, B, D
3. A B C
4. A B C
5. A, B, C, E
6. A B C
7. A B C D
8. A B C D E
9. A B C D E
10. D
11. A